BIO206 - Midterm #2

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Why is eukaryotic transcription more complicated than prokaryotic transcription? (4)

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1

Why is eukaryotic transcription more complicated than prokaryotic transcription? (4)

3 types of RNA polymerases (5 in plants), gazillions more proteins in transcription initiation, introns / exons in protein CDS, gazillion proteins for RNA processing

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2

Why do eukaryotes need to regulate more complex functions? (3)

More things to coordinate especially if multicellular; larger genomes means more genes to recognize, control, & transcribe; compartmentalized cellular functions (organelles)

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3

What are enhancers?

Enhancer elements in eukaryotic genes are upstream of promoters and control transcription efficiency

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4

What are 2 components of a eukaryotic CDS?

Exons & introns

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5

What is an exon?

Part of CDS that gets transcribed to RNA and encodes the protein

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6

What is an intron?

Part of CDS that gets transcribed but does not code for protein, found in between the exons of the CDS

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7

What are untranslated regions (UTRs)?

Regions of a gene that are transcribed but not translated, found at the 5' and 3' ends of the protein CDS

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8

What are the 6 components of a eukaryotic gene from 5' to 3'?

Enhancers, upstream elements (GC box & CAAT box), core promoter (TATA box), 5' UTR, protein CDS (exons & introns), 3' UTR

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9

What is the position of the enhancers in a eukaryotic gene?

Thousands of bp upstream of the upstream elements

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10

What is a class II promoter?

Recognized by RNA polymerase II

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11

What are the 2 parts of a class II promoter?

Core promoter + upstream element

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12

What are the 6 elements of the core class II promoter?

BREu, TATA (-25), BREd, Inr (+1), MTE (+17), DPE (+27)

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13

What is the purpose of the class II promoter? (2)

Points RNA polymerase to the correct direction for transcription + minimum sequence of DNA required for accurate transcription

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14

What is the position of the upstream elements in a class II promoter?

-100 to -80

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15

What are the 2 components of the upstream element of a class II promoter?

GC box (-100) + CAAT box (-80)

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16

What is the consensus sequence of the TATA box in a class II promoter?

TATAAA

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17

What is the consensus sequence of the GC box?

GGGCGG

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18

What is the consensus sequence of the CAAT box?

GCCCAATCT

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19

What are 5 proteins involved in eukaryotic transcription?

RNA polymerases, general transcription factors (GTFs) for core promoter element, transcription factors for other elements in promoter, regulatory activator proteins that bind to distal enhancer elements, mediators which bridge the distal regulatory proteins & the core initiation complex

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20

What are the 3 types of RNA polymerase?

I, II, III

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21

What 3 genes does RNA polymerase I transcribe?

5.8S, 18S, 28S rRNA

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22

What 6 genes does RNA polymerase II transcribe?

All protein-coding genes (mRNA), snoRNA, miRNA, siRNA, IncRNA, most snRNA (functional RNAs)

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23

What 4 genes does RNA polymerase III transcribe?

tRNA, 5S rRNA, some snRNA, genes for other small RNAs

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24

How are rRNAs named?

According to their "S" value, which refers to the rate of sedimentation in an ultracentrifuge where the larger the S value, the larger the rRNA

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25

What are the 12 components of RNA polymerase II?

5 core subunits + 7 additional subunits

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26

What are general transcription factors (GTFs)?

Help RNA polymerase II interact with the core promoter elements

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27

What are 6 GTFs used to initiate transcription from the class II promoter?

GTFIIA, GTFIIB, GTFIID, GTFIIE, GTFIIF, GTFIIH

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28

What are activator proteins?

Bind to enhancer DNA elements thousands of bp upstream of core promoter

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29

What is the mediator protein?

Bridges the interaction between activators/enhancers and the proteins bound to the core promoter elements (RNA polymerases, GTFs, etc.)

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30

What are 5 proteins that bind to the core promoter?

RNA polymerase, GTFs, mediator, chromatin remodelling complexes, histone-modifying enzymes

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31

How do activator proteins regulate genetic eukaryotic transcription?

Multiple activators/enhancers can associate with the mediator to allow cells to control transcription more precisely

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32

What is necessary for successful transcription initiation?

Sum of all protein-DNA & protein-protein interactions

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33

What is spacer DNA?

Region of non-coding DNA between genes & between regulatory DNA sequences of enhancers

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34

What are the 2 TFIID subunits?

TFIID TBP subunit (TATA binding protein) + TFIID TAF subunits (TBP associated factors)

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35

What is TFIID TBP (TATA binding protein) subunit?

Binds to the TATA box of the core promoter

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36

What is TFIID TAF (TBP associated factors) subunit?

Binds to the Inr (initiator), MTE (motif ten element), DPE (downstream core promoter element) of the core promoter

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37

What is TFIIA?

Stabilizes TFIID promoter binding

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38

What is TFIIB?

Binds to BRE (B recognition element), a pair of sequences (BREu & BREd) flanking the TATA box of the core promoter

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39

What is TFIIF? (2)

Stabilizes RNA polymerase interaction with TBP & TFIIB + helps attract TFIIE & TFIIH

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40

What is TFIIE?

Attracts & regulates TFIIH

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41

What is TFIIH? (2)

Unwinds DNA at the transcription start site (helicase activity) + phosphorylates Ser5 of RNA polymerase CTD (C-terminal domain) to initiate elongation (kinase activity)

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42

What 2 types of interactions are necessary for GTFs to perform their function?

Protein-protein & protein-DNA interactions

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43

What are the 11 steps of the binding of GTFs & RNA polymerase II to the promoter (DAB-Pol-FEH)?

TFIID TAF binds MTE, DPE, & Inr forming D complex; TFIIA displaces TAF1 of TFIID; TFIIA + TFIID TBP bind to TATA forming DA complex; TFIID undergoes major conformation change bending DNA by ~90°; TFIIB binds BREu & BREd stabilizing the DAB complex; TFIIF + RNA pol arrive to form the DABPolF complex; TFIIB hooks RNA pol into place; TFIIF binds DNA & stabilizes complex (helping RNA pol bind to region from -34 to +17); TFIIE arrives forming DABPolFE, TFIIH arrives forming DABPolFEH with TFIIH as helicase & kinase, mediator binds for additional contact points for regulation

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44

What are the 9 components of the pre-initiation complex (PIC)?

DNA, TFIID, TFIIA, TFIIB, RNA polymerase II, TFIIF, TFIIE, TFIIH, mediator complex

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45

What are the 2 enzymatic activities of TFIIH?

Helicase + kinase

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46

What is the helicase activity of TFIIH?

TFIIH unwinds DNA using XPB & XPD subunits while TFIIB holds the open DNA in place as RNA polymerase II clamps onto the DNA, keeping them from re-annealing

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47

What is the kinase activity of TFIIH?

TFIIH phosphorylates the 5th serine of each RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain repeat, signalling RNA polymerase II to enter elongation phase

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48

What is the RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain (CTD) repeat?

7 amino acids rich in alcohols, YSPTSPS

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49

Which genes are monocistronic?

Most eukaryotic genes

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50

Where does a ribosome bind to initiate translation on a monocistronic gene?

Ribosome binding site (RBS) upstream of the start codon (AUG) of protein CDS in the 5' UTR

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51

What is post-transcriptional mRNA modification?

Transcription from eukaryotic genes produces immature pre-mRNA, which gets post-transcriptionally processed to produce mature mRNA that gets translated in the cytoplasm

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52

What are the 3 post-transcriptional mRNA modifications in eukaryotes?

5' capping, splicing out introns, 3' poly-adenylation tail

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53

What is the primary RNA transcript in eukaryotes?

Immature pre-mRNA that has to go through post-transcriptional modification

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54

What are the 5 components of mature mRNA in eukaryotes?

5' cap, 5' UTR with RBS, protein CDS with exons adjacent, 3' UTR, poly-A tail

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55

What are the 2 functions of RNA polymerase II CTD phosphorylation?

Signalling RNA polymerase II to enter elongation phase + coordinate post-transcriptional modifications during elongation

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56

How does RNA polymerase II CTD phosphorylation coordinate elongation? (3)

Beginning of elongation = only Ser5 phosphorylated to recruit enzymes for 5' capping, middle of elongation = additional phosphorylation of Ser2 to recruit enzymes for splicing, end of elongation = Ser5 gets dephosphorylated while Ser2 remains phosphorylated to recruit enzymes to add poly-A-tail

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57

What are the 3 steps of 5' capping of mRNA?

γ phosphate of transcript is removed from the 5' end by RNA triphosphatase, β & γ phosphates removed from guanosine triphosphate by guanylyltransferase, 5'-5' phosphotriester links resulting guanosine monophosphate & transcript heads on to form 5'-to-5' triphosphate bridge and RNA methyltransferase adds methyl group to N7 position of purine ring of guanine (7-methylguanosine)

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58

What is guanosine triphosphate (GTP)?

Nucleotide where the three phosphates are alpha, beta, gamma

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59

What is a cap binding protein (CBP)?

Binds to the 5' cap, one of the signals that mRNA is mature

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60

What is unique about the 2' OH of RNA?

Allows 2' to 5' phosphodiester bond formation (as opposed to normal 3' to 5' phosphodiester bonds)

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61

What is a 2' to 5' phosphodiester bond?

Extra branch in polynucleotide chain from 5' carbon of a nucleotide attaching to 2' carbon of ribonucleotide in chain

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62

What are the 3 steps of intron excision?

Introns get cut out of the exons at the 5' & 3' exon/intron junctions, 3' end of exon 1 joins to the 5' end of exon 2 to combine the 2 protein CDS together, 5' end of excised intron binds to 2' OH of the branch point adenine to make a looped structure resembling a Q

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63

Which phosphate does adenine use its 2' OH to attack during intron excision?

Phosphate at 5' exon/intron junction

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64

What 2 nucleotides does the 2' to 5' phosphodiester bond form between during intron excision?

2' to 5' phosphodiester bond forms between first nucleotide of the 5' intron end & branch point adenine

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65

What are the 3 conserved nucleotide sequences that are completely conserved for an intron?

5' GU, adenine residue at branch point 15-45 bases upstream from 3' end, 3' AG

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66

What is the polypyrimidine tract of intron?

Pyrimidine rich region ~ 15b long, upstream of branch point adenine

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67

What nucleotide is at each end of every exon?

G

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68

What is a spliceosome?

Forms during transcription to identify exon/intron junctions & excise introns to splice exons

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69

What is the unit of a spliceosome?

Protein + snRNA (small nuclear RNA) = snRNP (small nuclear ribonuclear-proteins)

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70

What comprises a spliceosome?

Combination of many snRNPs

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71

What are the 6 components of a spliceosome?

BBP branch point binding protein, snRNP U2, snRNP U1, snRNP U6, snRNP U4, snRNP U5

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72

What 3 sequences are required for intron removal & recognized by spliceosome?

Branch point sequence (YNYURAY), 5' splice junction (GU), 3' splice junction (AG) where Y = pyrimidine (cytosine/thymine), N = any nucleotide, R = purine (guanine/adenine), U = uracil

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73

What are the 4 steps of the splicing mechanism?

U1 snRNP binds 5' splice junction & BBP + U2AF (U2 auxiliary factor) binds to branch point; U2 snRNP displaces BBP + U2AF & binds to branch point + 3' splice junction (U1 & U2 interaction vs. RNA is mediated by RNA-RNA hybridization); U4/U6 & U5 joins the complex followed by U4 dissociation to cause conformational change to open the catalytic site for first phosphoryl-transferase reaction of adenine attacking with free OH, second phosphoryl transferase reaction occurs joining two exons together

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74

What is alternative splicing?

Exons can be joined in different patterns

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75

What is the advantage of alternative splicing?

Increases the number of proteins encoded by a single gene for genomic efficiency

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76

What is the sequence that signals for 3' trimming & poly-A addition?

AAUAAA signal located in 3' UTR of pre-mRNA

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77

What are the 2 proteins involved in poly-A tail addition?

CstF (cleavage stimulating factor) & CPSF (cleavage & polyadenylation specificity factor)

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78

What is the poly-A tail?

250 adenine residues added by polyA polymerase (PAP), which does not need a template

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79

What are the 3 steps of poly-A tail addition?

CPSF binds AAUAAA sequence, recruitment of additional proteins such as CstF, pre-mRNA cleaved downstream of poly-A site & poly-A tail added by PAP

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80

Where does the cleavage before poly-A addition occur?

10-30 nucleotides downstream of AAUAAA signal at 3'CA that is upstream of GU-rich or U-rich region, where -OH is added and then replaced by poly-A tail

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81

What happens to the GU-rich or U-rich region downstream of the poly-A cleavage?

Degraded in the nucleus

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82

What is a signal for mature mRNA with the poly-A tail?

Poly-A binding proteins bind to the poly-A tail

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83

What is eukaryotic transcription termination?

After pre-mRNA is cleaved for the addition of poly-A tail, RNA polymerase II runs on and eventually dissociates from the DNA

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84

What may have some role in the process of RNA polymerase II dissociating from DNA?

Lack of 5' cap on growing RNA molecule

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85

What 3 types of proteins bind to mRNA after modification to signal maturity & readiness for export?

Cap binding proteins (CBP, bound to 5' cap), poly-A binding proteins (bound to 3' poly-A tail), other proteins bound to correctly spliced exon

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86

What happens to the mature mRNA?

Forms the nuclear pore complex to exit the nucleus and enter the cytoplasm

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87

What are 3 examples of cellular activity performed by proteins?

Catalyze metabolic reactions as enzymes, build cellular structures, send/receive signals

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88

What are the 2 parts of translation?

Ribosome recognizes & binds to a sequence on mRNA upstream of protein CDS + ribosome synthesizes a polypeptide according to the nucleic acid sequence on mRNA

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89

What is the direction of the ribosome reading mRNA?

5' to 3' direction

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90

What is the direction of polypeptide synthesis?

N- to C-terminus by adding amino acids one-by-one

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91

How is a nucleic acid sequence (mRNA) converted to an amino acid sequence (polypeptide)?

4 types of nucleotides need to code for 20 types of amino acids

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92

What is the maximum coding capacity for different combinations of nucleotides?

4 to the power of n where 1 nucleotide (singlet, n) = 4 amino acids, 2 nucleotides (doublet, nn) = 16 amino acids, 3 nucleotides (triplet, nnn) = 64 amino acids, 4 nucleotides (quad, nnnn) = 256 amino acids

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93

Why is the genetic code in triplets of nucleotides?

Smallest number of nucleotides that can have enough unique combinations for 20 amino acids

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94

What are 7 features of the genetic code?

Amino acid specificity, comma-free, non-overlapping, unambiguous, polar, degenerate, nearly universal

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95

How does the genetic code have amino acid specificity?

Uses a nucleotide triplet to code for one amino acid

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96

How is the genetic code comma-free?

No nucleotides in between the triplet nucleotides used as punctuations

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97

How is the genetic code non-overlapping?

Neighbouring nucleotide triplets don't overlap

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98

How is the genetic code unambiguous?

Meaning of the nucleotide triplet never changes

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99

How is the genetic code polar?

Written & read in the 5' to 3' direction

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100

How is the genetic code degenerate?

Multiple different nucleotide triplets may code for the same amino acid

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