Studied by 11 peopleTags & Description
introns are removed during the process called ____ so only exons are included in the mature RNA
rna splicing
Two species that branch off from the node of a phylogenetic tree are analogous to
A. siblings on a family tree.
B. cousins on a family tree.
C. grandparents on a family tree.
D. parents on a family tree.
A
Which of the following statements is depicted by the phylogeny at the right?
A. The ancestors of humans became gradually more “humanlike” over time.
B. Old World monkeys share a common ancestor with humans.
C. Humans represent the end of a lineage of animals whose common ancestor was primate-like.
D. Humans evolved from chimpanzees.
B
If you were looking at a phylogeny of living bird species, where could you find the name of a species of non-theropod dinosaur?
A. At the tip of a branch, as an outgroup.
B. At the root of the tree.
C. Either a or b.
D. Nested within the bird lineages.
C
Which of the following is not a synapomorphy?
A. The ability to swim in dolphins and sharks.
B. The production of milk in humans and cats.
C. The ability to fly in eagles and pigeons.
D. The laying of eggs with shells in snakes and lizards.
A
Which of the following is an example of homoplasy?
A. The reversion of a derived character state to its ancestral state.
B. The independent origin of similar traits in separate lineages.
C. The evolution of wings in both birds and bats.
D. All of the above.
d
According to Figure 4.24, what homologies do Tiktaalik and Acanthostega share?
A. Tail fin reduced and weight-bearing elbows.
B. Weight-bearing elbows and forelimbs and hindlimbs with digits.
C. Nostril connected to mouth and tail fin reduced.
D. Bony skeleton and weight-bearing elbows.
d
Why are bird feathers considered an exaptation?
A. Because they are a shared derived character found in most birds.
B. Because they are traits that have independently evolved in separate lineages.
C. Because they first evolved for functions other than flight.
D. Because they are an evolutionary reversal to an ancestral character state.
c
Scientists have discovered that middle ear bones evolved independently in
A. monotremes and marsupials.
B. monotremes and therians.
C. marsupials and therians.
D. dinosaurs and birds.
b
Synapomorphies among a group of species is evidence that
A. the species share an immediate common ancestor.
B. the species are paraphyletic.
C. the traits in question evolved independently (convergence).
D. the traits in question originally evolved for a different function (exaptations).
a
Which of the following is not a protein?
A. Histone.
B. Insulin.
C. Nucleotide.
D. Hemoglobin.
c
What role do histones play in eukaryotes?
A. Condensing the DNA and controlling the transcription of genes.
B. Translating RNA and condensing the DNA.
C. Translating RNA and transcription of genes.
D. None of the above
a
According to Figure 5.8, which of the following codons does not designate the amino acid serine?
A. UCU.
B. UGU.
C. UCA.
D. AGU.
b
Which of the following is an important job of a hormone?
A. To splice alternative exons.
B. To alter expression of target genes.
C. To halt transcription of mRNA.
D. To induce translation of DNA.
b
What is the name of DNA sequences that have lost their protein-coding ability?
A. Transposons.
B. Pseudogenes.
C. Introns.
D. Exons.
b
Which of the following mutations does not affect gene expression?
A. Mutations to promoter regions.
B. Mutations to cis-regulatory regions.
C. Mutations that code for recessive alleles.
D. Mutations that code for hormones.
c
Which of the following statements about genetic recombination is false?
A. Genetic recombination acts independently of independent assortment.
B. Genetic recombination occurs during the production of sperm.
C. Genetic recombination is relatively unimportant to the process of natural selection.
D. During meiosis, chromosomes can cross over and exchange segments of DNA so that chromosomes of gametes are different from the chromosomes of the parents.
c
Which of these statements about the link between phenotypes and genotypes is not true?
A. The environment often affects how a phenotype will develop.
B. A single genotype may produce multiple phenotypes.
C. Human height is controlled by more than one gene.
D. Risk of Huntington’s disease is a quantitative (polygenic) trait.
d
Which of the following is/are part of the environmental control of gene expression?
A. Signals from outside the body.
B. Signals from other genes within the cell.
C. Signals from other cells.
D. All of the above.
d
Which of the following is not true of DNA in eukaryotes?
A. It is regularly altered through horizontal gene transfer.
B. It is coiled tightly around a series of histone proteins.
C. It is reorganized into larger structures known as chromosomes.
D. It is coiled to allow it to fit within a cell’s nucleus.
a
If two individuals mate, one of them heterozygous at a locus and the other homozygous for a recessive allele at the same locus, what will be the outcome?
A. The offspring will be either heterozygous or homozygous for the recessive allele.
B. The offspring will be homozygous for the dominant allele, heterozygous, or homozygous for the recessive allele.
C. The offspring will not evolve because they will carry the same alleles as the parents.
D. The recessive allele eventually will become the dominant allele in the population.
a
The Hardy–Weinberg theorem demonstrates that
A. dominant alleles are more common than recessive alleles.
B. in the absence of outside forces, allele frequencies of a population will not change from one generation to the next.
C. a locus can have only one of two alleles.
D. evolution is occurring.
b
Which population would be most likely to have allele frequencies in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?
A. A population in a rapidly changing environment.
B. A population where immigration is common.
C. A large population that currently is not evolving.
D. A population that cycles between a very large and a very small number of individuals.
c
Genetic drift
A. can cause the loss of an allele in a species.
B. happens faster in large populations than in small ones.
C. does not occur in large populations.
D. is a function of Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium.
a
A genetic bottleneck in a population often results in
A. loss of alleles.
B. an increase in inbreeding.
C. an increase in genetic drift.
D. All of the above.
d
What do population geneticists mean when they refer to the fitness of an allele?
A. The ability of the allele to survive in a population.
B. The contribution of an allele to the strength and overall health of a genotype.
C. The contribution of an allele to a genotype’s relative success at producing new individuals.
D. Whether or not an allele is dominant.
c
If a mutation produces a new deleterious recessive allele in a population, what is least likely to happen to the frequency of that allele?
A. It will remain at a low frequency within the population for a very long time.
B. Drift will determine whether it persists in the population.
C. The allele will be rare enough that it almost never occurs in a homozygous state.
D. The allele will quickly be purged from the population by selection.
d
If Cavalli-Sforza and colleagues had measured allele frequencies as 0.869 for the A allele and 0.131 for the S allele, how many homozygous genotypes should they have expected to find? Would they have considered the population to be at equilibrium? 9354 AA and 29 SS.
A. No, they would not have considered the population to be at equilibrium. 9354 AA and 211 SS.
B. Yes, they would have considered the population to be close to equilibrium. 9354 AA and 211 SS.
C. No, they would not have considered the population to be at equilibrium. 2811 AA and 2993 SS.
D. No, they would not have considered the population to be at equilibrium.
c
Which of these statements about inbreeding is false?
A. Inbreeding is not a mechanism of evolution.
B. Inbreeding can affect the fitness of individuals, but it does not necessarily alter allele frequencies within a population.
C. Inbreeding increases the probability that two alleles at any locus will be identical because of a shared common ancestor.
D. Inbreeding alters allele frequencies within a population but does not affect the fitness of individuals.
d
What can measuring genetic distance, or FST , tell scientists about a group of organisms?
A. Whether groups have begun to diverge from each other.
B. Whether genes are under strong selection.
C. How barriers may be influencing gene flow.
D. All of the above.
d
Phenotypic traits often have a continuous distribution because they are
A. a result of dominance interactions.
B. not related to genotypes.
C. influenced only by the environment.
D. often polygenic.
d
Which of these statements about narrow sense heritability ℎ 2 is true?
A. The numerator of narrow sense heritability includes additive, dominant, and epistatic gene effects.
B. The numerator of narrow sense heritability includes only the additive effects of alleles.
C. Narrow sense heritability includes only the epistatic effects of alleles.
D. Narrow sense heritability can be estimated by comparing quantitative trait loci among offspring using regression.
b
The breeder’s equation incorporates two of the conditions Darwin identified that must be met for evolution by natural selection to take place. Which two?
A. Greater survival S and reproduction R of phenotypes with specific alleles.
B. Variation in phenotypic traits R and heritability of additive alleles ℎ2.
C. Differences in phenotypes that influence the probability of survival or reproduction S and differences in phenotypic traits that must be at least partially heritable H2.
D. Heritability of additive alleles h2 and the evolutionary response of the population R.
c
How can scientists determine what constitutes a quantitative trait locus?
A. They painstakingly examine the genotypes of hundreds of individuals and look for genes that are consistently similar.
B. They examine nucleotide sequences and count the repeated segments that they feel are important.
C. They hybridize species and compare how genetic markers recombine in the offspring.
D. They select for different traits in lineages of an organism, cross-breed the lineages for two generations, and search for genetic markers that are correlated with expression of the trait.
d
If the age of sexual maturation is a phenotypically plastic trait, what relationship(s) would you expect to find?
A. Genotypes differ in the age at which they reproduce.
B. Environmental conditions (such as nutrition) affect the age at which individuals begin reproducing.
C. Body size affects the age at which different genotypes reproduce.
D. All of the above.
b
Which of the following is an example of the process of evolution?
A. A population of snowshoe hares has a different frequency of alleles than the previous generation.
B. Trees drop their leaves in the fall.
C. A man becomes immune to a strain of virus that caused him to have a cold when he was younger.
D. A female bird lays more eggs one season than she did the three previous seasons combined
a
The rate of adaptive evolution depends on
A. the strength of selection.
B. heritability of traits.
C. a and b.
D. phenotypes of organisms in natural populations.
c
Which of the following is responsible for the heritability of a trait?
A. Influences on the genotype by additive environmental components.
B. The proportion of phenotypic variance that is due to genetic differences among individuals.
C. All of the genetic contributions to a trait’s phenotype.
D. Influences of the parental phenotype on the environment of the offspring.
b
Genetic variance among individuals can be broken down into all of the following categories except
A. total variance in phenotypic trait in a population.
B. additive genetic variance.
C. variance due to dominance effects of alleles.
D. variance attributable to epistatic interactions among alleles at various genetic loci.
a
Evolution happens when
A. there is a change in allele frequencies in a population.
B. there is a change in allele frequencies in a family.
C. there is selection of any kind.
D. All of the above.
a
Why is understanding coalescence important when developing molecular phylogenies?
A. Because scientists can’t know the true genealogy of a lineage without coalescing phylogenies to determine which is the most parsimonious.
B. Because scientists can sample only a limited portion of the history of any allele.
C. Because alleles that change over time are not valuable to developing phylogenies.
D. Because scientists can’t possibly determine the genealogy of a lineage from the limited samples available to them.
b
Why don’t all gene trees reflect the phylogeny of species?
A. Because the branch lengths of a species tree are usually much longer on average than the coalescence times of the genes being analyzed.
B. Because coalescence of specific genes can occur before speciation events.
C. Because speciation events can sometimes be very rapid.
D. Both b and c.
d
Why might scientists use a statistical tool, such as Bayesian or maximum likelihood analyses, when reconstructing phylogenies?
A. Because otherwise scientists can easily misinterpret the outcome.
B. Because scientists can specify the parameters of a statistical model and test the capacity of the tool to produce comparable trees.
C. Because molecular data can provide both true and false signals of the branching history, and statistical tools can reveal important patterns in the changes that occurred.
D. Both b and c.
d
Molecular phylogenies indicate which of the following about HIV?
A. The same mutation evolved in three separate lineages of HIV; in each instance, the mutation improved the ability of the virus to infect humans.
B. HIV came from a monkey virus that was introduced into people by contaminated vaccinations.
C. HIV is a monophyletic strain of lentivirus that infects both humans and chimpanzees.
D. The common ancestor of simian immunodeficiency virus and human immunodeficiency virus came from horses.
a
The theory of neutral evolution describes
A. the rate of mutation at a site that results from purifying selection, regardless of the size of the population.
B. the rate of fixation of alleles at a site in the absence of selection.
C. the competition between genetic drift and natural selection within the genome.
D. Both a and b.
b
Which of these is a true statement about molecular clocks?
A. Molecular clocks use neutral theory to date events within a phylogeny.
B. Molecular clocks can be calibrated using fossils of known age.
C. Molecular clocks can be affected by the segments of DNA being examined and relative sizes of the populations.
D. All of the above.
d
When dN > dS,
A. scientists would reject the null hypothesis of neutral evolution because the number of replacement substitutions is greater than expected.
B. scientists would accept the hypothesis that the population is undergoing purifying selection because more replacement mutations were found than expected.
C. scientists would reject the hypothesis that natural selection took place millions of years ago and is no longer relevant.
D. scientists would accept the hypothesis that neutral evolution took place millions of years ago.
d
Which of the following is not true of coalescence?
A. The timing of coalescence can depend on whether or not alleles are under selection.
B. Positive selection can accelerate the rise in frequency in an allele, leading to a short coalescence.
C. Two alleles that experience little selection may coexist longer, and thus the farther back coalescence occurs.
D. In some instances, it is impossible to trace the genealogies of two homologous alleles in a population to a common ancestral allele, even if it is possible to trace their histories indefinitely.
d
Why do scientists use several genes when they examine the phylogenetic relationships among species?
A. Synonymous substitutions are more likely to be present in multiple genes.
B. The phylogeny of a single segment of DNA may be different from the phylogeny of the species that carry it.
C. Purifying selection can remove deleterious alleles from a population, and a single segment of DNA may be missing from one gene.
D. Scientists are aiming to increase their chances of finding microsatellites, which can be valuable genetic characters for comparing populations.
b
Which of the following is not true of the neutral theory of molecular evolution?
A. When neutral variation accumulates at a steady rate, the molecular signature generated is an unreliable measure to date events in the distant past.
B. The neutral theory of molecular evolution describes the pattern of nucleotide sequence evolution under the forces of mutation and random genetic drift in the absence of selection.
C. The neutral theory predicts that neutral mutations will yield nucleotide substitutions in a population at a rate equivalent to the rate of mutation, regardless of the size of population.
D. As long as mutation rates remain constant, neutral variation is expected to accumulate at a steady rate.
a
the rate of synonymous substitution in a gene serves as an estimate of the rate of
A. coalescence
B. evolution by natural selection
C. gene flow between populations
D. phenotypic plasticity
E. neutral evolution by genetic drift
e
what can genome-wide association maps be useful for
A. developing a map of allele frequencies among individuals in a population
B. developing maps of DNA showing noncoding regions
C. screening for traits that are not correlated with genotypes
D. finding a pirate’s buried treasure
E. screening for alleles associated with multiple major disease
e
a situation in which strong selection fixes a favorable allele within a population so fast that there is little opportunity for recombination is
A. introgression
B. selective sweep
C. purifying selection
D. genetic hitchhiking
E. negative selection
b
which pair is an example of orthologs
A. HIV-1 and SIV viruses
B. hemoglobin subunits in humans
C. BRCA 1 in humans and BRCA 1 in mice
D. the G variant and T variant of BRCA 1
E. the hemoglobin gene of humans and the myoglobin gene of chimpanzee
c
coalescence is the
A. removal of deleterious alleles from a population
B. movement of alleles from one species or population to another
C. persistence of genetic polymorphism through several speciation events
D. process in which the genealogy of any pair of homologous alleles merges in a common ancestor
E. cover band for evanescence
d
a synapomorphy is
A. a homologous gene that arose through gene duplication
B. a derived form of a trait that is shared by a group of related species
C. one of two or more homologous genes separated by a speciation event
D. a noncoding stretch of DNA containing a string of short repeated segments
E. a lineage evolves toward one of its ancestral traits, effectively losing a more recently evolved trait. this is generally thought to involve genetically “reactivating” the ancestral trait
b
a distance method for reconstructing phylogeneies that identifies the tree topology with the shortest possible branch lengths given the data is
A. neighbor joining
B. bayesianphylogenies methods
C. maximum alimony
D. maximum likelihood
E. maximum parsimony
a
the discipline that unites molecular and cell biology, genetics, and computational science is
A. evolutionary medicine
B. evolutionary biology
C. physiology
D. genomics
E. proteomics
d
which two phenomena can increase the rate of coalescence causing more coalescent event closer to the tips of a gene tree than expected
A. positive selection and increased population size
B. bottleneck events and decreased population size
C. positive selection and decreased population size
D. balancing selection and increased population size
E. neutral selection and stable population size
c
when do alleles found on the same chromosome have a high chance of being swapped by recombination
A. when they are very close
B. when they are very far apart
C. when they are very different
D. when the organism reproduces asexually
E. when the organism engages in horizontal gene transfer
b
how do reaction names relate to phenotypic plasticity
A. reaction norms are a visualization of an organism’s response to environmental variation
B. reaction norms are a visualization of the traits across a variety of genotypes
C. reaction norms are a visualization of the variation in genes that affect traits
D. these two concepts are not related
E. they are synonyms
a
what is narrow sense heritability
A. the components of variance that cause offspring to resemble their parents and cause populations to evolve predictably in response to selection
B. the proportion of the total phenotypic variance of a trait attributable to the interactive effects of alleles
C. genetic variance is represented in its entirety as a single value and not broken down into different components
D. the proportion of the total phenotypic variance of a trait directly attributable to total genetic variance in a population
E. the best fit slope when fitting QTL (x-axis) and GWAS (y-axis)
a
what is linkage equilibrium
A. the differences in allele types among chromosomes
B. the relationship between loci on the same chromosome
C. the relationship between loci on different chromosomes
D. the occurrence of an allele at one of the loci nonrandomly associated with the presence or absence of an allele at another locus
E. when phenotypic plasticity is zero
c
what does an offspring-parent regression show
A. broad sense of heritability
B. the frequency of alleles in the population
C. how closely the offering trait values resemble those of their parents
D. the effect of drift on the phenotypes of the offspring represented in a population
c
what is linkage disequilibrium
A. the differences in allele types among chromosomes
B. the relationship between loci on the same chromosome
C. the relationship between loci on different chromosomes
D. the occurrence of an allele at one of the loci nonrandomly associated with the presence or absence of an allele at another locus
d
what does stabilizing selection do to a trait in a population
A. it favors individuals at the ends of the distribution of the phenotype present in a population
B. it favors individuals in the middle of the distribution of the phenotype present in a population
C. it favors individuals at the low end of the distribution of the phenotype present in a population
D. it favors individuals at the high end of the distribution of the phenotype present in a population
b
a selection differential is the measure of the
A. strength of phenotypic selection
B. allelic variation in the population
C. strength of selection of the genes
D. strength of drift on the population
a
____ is the number of copies of unique chromosomes in a cell
A. thymol
B. suppletory ophite
C. xylem
D. ploidy
E. synapomorphy
d
how can some loci be in hardy-weinberg equilibrium while other loci are not
A. the alleles in equilibrium have fewer copies than the alleles not in equilibrium
B. the alleles in equilibrium have more copies than the alleles not in equilibrium
C. some alleles have a selective advantage over other alleles making it more likely that they are in equilibrium
D. alleles at a particular locus are assumed to be independent of other alleles in a simple population genetic model
d
why are additive alleles particularly vulnerable to the effects of selection
A. they are always recessive and easily lost from the population
B. they occur only in very small populations and can be lost to drift
C. heterozygous individuals have higher fitness than individuals lacking the allele, and homozygous individuals fare even better, eventually leading to fixation
D. homozygous individuals have much lower fitness than individuals that are heterozygous, and heterozygous individuals fare even better, eventually leading to fixation
c
according to yourthat book, one likely reason that buri’s fruit flies evolved through genetic drift was because buri selected
A. a small number of flies from each generation to reproduce
B. a large number of flies from each generation to reproduce
C. only flies with the desired genotypes to reproduce
D. the largest flies to reproduce
a
antagonistic pleiotropy occurs when
A. selection favors multiple alleles
B. selection decreases the frequency of an advantageous allele within a population
C. a mutation with detrimental effects for one trait cascades into detrimental effects on other traits
D. a mutation with beneficial effects on one trait simultaneously causes detrimental effects on other traits
d
which scenario is an example of founder effect
A. migrating birds disperse a few plant seeds to a remote island, where a new population forms
B. a few individuals are part of a very large population with an extremely high birth rate
C. a family moves from East Coast of the US to the west coast
D. a large population of plants disperses a few seeds to an island every year
a
genomics is the
A. the study of proteins
B. study of continuous phenotypic traits
C. branched genealogical lineage of homologous alleles
D. study of prehistoric life
E. study of the structure and function of genomes
e
random chance has the greatest effect on the outcome of allelic frequencies when the population is
A. infinitely large
B. very small
C. shrinking
D. growing
E. non-existent
b
why is it difficult for new dominant alleles to go to fixation in a population, even if they increase in frequency very rapidly through selection
A. additive alleles prevent them from going to fixation
B. populations with dominant alleles always suffer from high rates of mutation
C. residual recessive alleles end up “hiding” in the remaining heterozygous individuals
D. recessive alleles interact more dominant, so homozygous recessive individuals are more maintained in the population
c
what does it mean if populations have high Fst values
A. there are few genetic differences among individuals in a subpopulation
B. there are large genetic differences among the species that live in an area
C. there are large genetic differences among populations across the landscape
D. there are small genetic differences among populations across the landscape
c
how tall an individual grows is determined by
A. the quality of nutrition received as a child and the uterine chemistry of the mother
B. the height of the father and the height of the maternal grandfather
C. hereditary factors and environmental factors
D. the difference in height between the parents
c
because asexual reproduction is much more efficient in many ways, the reason why sexual reproduction evolved as a reproductive mechanism is of considerable interest to biologists. given that the vast number of multicellular organisms can reproduce sexually, what conclusion can be drawn?
A. the evolution of sexual reproduction likely occurred by a chance alone and has been maintained in populations simply because of momentum
B. having the two different sexes of male and female in populations must be important in maintaining population stability
C. the role of maintaining genetic diversity in a population must outweigh the disadvantages of sexual reproduction
D. nature seems to “prefer” dichotomous systems
c
hereditary information is stored in the sequence of
A. amino acids of proteins
B. bases of proteins
C. sugars of DNA
D. bases of DNA
d
the three types of organic molecules that play the most direct roles in evolution are
A. proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates
B. proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids
C. DNA, RNA, and nucleic acids
D. DNA, RNA, and proteins
d
the ____claims that the overwhelming majority of evolutionary changes at the molecular level are not caused by selection acting advantageous mutants, but by random fixation of selectively neutral or very nearly neutral mutants through the cumulative effect of sampling drift (due to population number) under continued input of new mutations
A. neutral theory of molecular evolution
B. random fixation theory
C. kimura hypothesis
D. coalescent theory
E. dawkins theory
a
once a cell is permanently programmed through gene regulation, it is
A. somatic
B. cancerous
C. a stem cell
D. differentiated
d
a _____ is a stretch of DNA located near a gene that influences the expression of that gene
A. radioisotope
B. hormone
C. cis-acting element
D. somatic mutation
E. tans-acting element
c
what do phylogenetic trees represent
A. a change in the frequency of alleles in a population over time
B. shared morphologies of species
C. a series of speciation events
D. evolution over time
d
according to your book, what remarkable and scientifically exciting feature made the dinosaur Zhenyuanlong different from most other dinosaurs
A. it moved on the ground on two legs instead of four
B. it had sharp claws at the end of its arms
C. it had wings with quilled feathers
D. it was especially small relative to other dinosaurs
c
polytomy occurs when
A. the root of phylogeny has more than one branch; therefore, the common ancestor of the species is not identified
B. and internal node of phylogeny has more than two branches therefore, the order in which the branchings occurred is not resolved
C. the order in which consecutive branchings occurred in a phylogenetic tree is resolved
D. the tree topology has the least number of character-state changes
b
when biologists refer to “lobe-fins” as being a monophyletic group which taxa are included
A. coelacanths and lungfishes
B. coelacanths, lungfishes, and tetrapods
C. coelacanths, ray-finned fishes, and lunfishes
D. coelacanths, ray-finned fishes, lungfishes, and tetrapods
b
which scenario is a good analogy for an exaptation
A. using a bicycle to get to work
B. using a chainsaw to cut down a tree
C. using a phone to browse the internet
D. using a microscope to examine cells in a blood sample
c
which of these phrases is a description of an example of a synapomorphy
A. carnassial teeth are carnivorans
B. two lower incisors of carnivorans
C. any trait that has evolved convergently
D. any trait that the outgroup shares with the other species in the phylogeny
a
how can the allele responsible for sickle-cell anemia persist in populations, even under strong negative selection?
the s allele does more than cause sickle cell anemia; it helps protect against malaria
epistasis occurs when
selection increases the frequency of an allele within a population
M&N are 2 alleles fro human RBC surface protein. we know that 9% of a population are MM. if we assume hardy-weinburg equilibrium, what is the frequency of heterozygotes?
0.42
____ describes the movement of alleles from one species (due to hybridization)or population to another
introgression
how does phenotypic plasticity hep an organism?
maximizing fitness in variable but predictable environments
a __ is one of two or more homologous genes separated by a speciation event. for examples, BRCA1 in humans is a ____of PIGBRCA1 in swine
ortholog
negative selection occurs when
the average fitness of an allele is less than zero
what is breeder’s equation
R = h^2 x S
according to the video your inner reptile, how is a trithelodont unique
it is part reptile, and part mammal
how do molecular clocks work
they use rates of molecular change to deduce the divergence time between lineages in a phylogeny
Note
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