DEN 111 Midterm Review Chapters 1-12

C

A disease prevention strategy based on the shared commitment of everyone in the office is referred to as: A. An OSHA standard on occupational safety B. a FDA recommendation on patient safety C. a culture of safety D. an EPA regulation

D

After the successful development of a safety culture in a dental office what comes next? A. Commitment of management to improve patient and worker safety. B. Identify and remove hazards in the work environment. C. Determine the cause of identified problems. D. Give rewards.

A

What is the least helpful action that can be taken by employers to help ensure a safety culture in the workplace? A. Requiring staff to wear heavy utility gloves when recapping contaminated needles by hand. B. Openly supporting the safety culture through supply of resources. C. Engaging worker participation in safety planning. D. Having written safety guidelines and policies.

D

When should dental healthcare personnel first be introduced to the office’s culture of safety? A. During their first participation in the overall infection prevention program evaluation B. Just before caring for their first infectious patient C. After their first exposure incident D. When they are first hired

B

What is the least important aspect of a safety culture? A. Adherence to safety guidelines B. Having patients review the safety plan C. Worker participation in safety planning D. Having appropriate protective equipment available

D

Who should be involved in creating a safety culture in a dental facility? A. The dentist employer, dental assistants, and hygienists. B. The dental assistants, hygienists, and front office staff. C. The dental assistants and hygienists D. Everyone in the facility

A

What agency has developed a survey to determine the safety climate in a dental office? A. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health B. American Dental Assistants Association C. Food and Drug Administration D. American Dental Association

A

What is least important in setting the stage for safety in the office? A. Making sure there is a system to help ensure all appt times are filled every day. B. Making sure postexposure management procedures are in place. C. Making sure the sterilizer maintenance is up-to-date. D. Making sure the dental unit water is of good quality.

B.

What is the least safe procedure? A. Changing into heavy utility gloves for operative clean-up B. Hand-scrubbing contaminated instruments C. Having the face mask covering the nose. D. Using good quality dental unit water

D.

What is a safe procedure? A. Not monitoring the sterilization process B. Not wearing protective eyewear C. Not wearing gloves at chairside D. Not reusing disposables

C.

What is the best way to evaluate performance of hand hygiene by the office staff? A. Periodically measuring level of handwashing soap used. B. Keep track of approximate number of paper towels used. C. Observe staff performing hand hygiene D. Measure the amount of alcohol hand-rub used every week.

C.

What is the best way to evaluate performance of surface asepsis procedures? A. Measure the amount of disinfectant used every week. B. Interview the staff asking how they perform surface asepsis C. Observe the staff performing surface cleaning and disinfection. D. Estimate weekly the number of towels used to wipe down the surfaces.

A.

What infection prevention element provides the least protection to patients? A. Wearing of protective eyewear by the dental team B. Immunization of the dental team against influenza C. When dental team wears exam gloves at chairside D. Dividing instrument processing area into defined sites for decontamination, packaging, sterilization, and storage

C.

What infection prevention element provides protection to both patients and the dental team? A. The dental team wearing protective eyewear B. Having sharps container close to chairside C. The dental team being immunized against Hep B. D. Disinfecting a denture before sending to the dental lab

B.

What infection prevention element provides protection to patients but not the dental team? A. Hand hygiene by the dental team B. Packaging instruments prior to sterilzation C. When the dental team wears gloves at chairside D. The dental team wearing face masks at chairside

A

What office safety element provides protection to the dental team but not patients? A. The dental team's understanding of the Hazard Communication Standard B. Use of the rubber dam C. Use of disposables at chairside D. The dental team wearing protective clothing

A

What infection prevention element provides protection to patients but not the dental team? A. Aseptic retrieval of supplies B. Dental team gloving at chairside C. Dental team wearing protective eyewear D. High-volume evacuation

D.

CDC’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standard recommends the development of a written program to maintain occupational health for dental workers that include medical conditions and work restriction, immunizations, postexposure medical evaluations and: A. Results of patient surveys for treatment satisfaction B. Record of patient appt cancellations C. Emergency escape routes D. Immunizations

C.

How many shots are required for with the hepatitis B vaccine? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

A.

Which of the following best describes the recommended inoculation schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine? A. First dose followed 1 month later by a second dose and a third dose 6 months after the first. B. First dose followed 2 month later by a second dose and a third dose 6 months after the first. C. First dose followed 6 month later by a second dose and a third dose 8 months after the first. D. First dose followed by one additional dose every year.

D.

How often should one receive a “flu” shot? A. Once every 20 years B. Once every 10 years C. Once every 5 years D. Once every year

C

What is the general nature of the hepatitis B vaccine? A. It contains a live virus B. It contains a whole inactivated virus C. It contains a recombinant vaccine D. It contains an immune globulin

A

There is no vaccine for which of the following diseases? A. Hepatitis C B. Measles C. Mumps D. Influenza

A.

A vaccine is not available in the US for: A. Human immunodeficiency virus disease B. Measles C. Chickenpox D. Tetanus

C.

According to OSHA’s bloodborne pathogens standard, if a dental office staff person who is susceptible to hepatitis B refuses the offer to be vaccinated against hepatitis B, what must happen? A. The staff person must see a physician B. The staff person must not be hired/must be fired C. The staff person must sign a vaccine declination form D. The staff person can work in the office but can only work with children under 12

A.

Which of the following symptoms are prominent with influenza but rare or slight with the common cold? A. Headaches and body aches B. Sore throat and sneezing C. Stuffy nose and sore throat D. Slow onset and low fever

D

What types of viral strains are in the influenza vaccine? A. Three type Bs B. Three type As C. One type A and one type B D. Two type As and one type B

C.

The Tdap vaccine is designed to prevent diphtheria, pertussis, and: A. Tuberculosis B. Typhoid C. Tetanus D. Typhus

C.

A vaccine is not available for: A. Rubella B. Chickenpox C. Some human herpesviruses D. Hepatitis B

B.

Why should healthcare workers get tested for hepatitis B antibodies after receiving the three shots of hepatitis B vaccine? A. To see if they are also HIV+ B. To see if they've become immune to Hepatitis B C. To see if they're allergic to the vaccine D. To see if they need the Hep A vaccine

B.

The vaccine against _____________ consists of an inactivated toxin. A. Hepatitis B B. Tetanus C. Measles D. Mumps

D.

Which of the following diseases is not on the CDC’s list of vaccine preventable diseases? A. Hepatitis B B. Measles C. Influenza D. Tuberculosis

D

What is the CDC’s recommendation for hepatitis B vaccinations of infants? A. Vaccination of only the females B. No vaccination until age 3 C. Vaccination of only premature infants D. Vaccination of all infants at birth

D

A dental assistant was an asymptomatic carrier of hepatitis B. What happens when she receives the hepatitis B vaccination series? A. She'll develop symptoms of Hepatitis B B. The carrier state will be eliminated C. She'll become immune to Hepatitis B D. The vaccine will not work and she'll remain a carrier

B

The CDC estimates that what will prevent more than 21 million hospitalizations and 732,000 deaths among children born in the last 20 years? A. Increased use of prophylactic antibiotics B. Vaccinations C. High protein diets D. Infection control

T

T or F: A vaccine is available in the US against pneumococcal pneumonia.

F

T or F: A vaccine is available in the US against human immunodeficiency virus disease.

F

T or F: After persons have received the hepatitis B vaccination series, they must be given a booster shot every 5 years to maintain their immunity.

A

What year were microbes first observed? A. 1667 B. 1880 C. 1956 D. 1975

C

Choose the microbial killing method referred to as pasteurization. A. 121C for 20 minutes B. 212F for 5 minutes C. 63C for 30 minutes D. 37C for 10 minutes

D

What microbes are used to make vinegar, vitamins, drain cleaners, enzymes, and other products? A. Fungi B. Viruses C. Protozoa D. Bacteria

C

When was the "Golden Age of Microbiology"? A. Mid to late 1600s B. Mid to late 1700s C. Mid to late 1800s D. Mid to late 1900s

A

Which microbes are used to make pickles out of cucumbers? A. Bacteria or fungi B. Fungi or viruses C. Viruses or yeasts D. Bacteria of viruses

T

T or F: The disease of small pox was involved in the discovery of immunizations in the 1790s by Edward Jenner.

D

Who is reported to have first observed microbes? A. Pasteur B. Oliver Wendell Holmes C. Lister D. Leeuwenhoek

B

Select an environment in which viruses can multiply. A. Only in the absence of nutrients B. Only when they are inside of living cells C. Only when they are outside of living cells D. Only when the temperature is below 7 degrees Celsius

C.

Which of the following microbes is a yeast? A. Streptococcus mutans B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Candida albicans D. Staphylococcus aureus

B

Which of the following microbes is a type of fungus? A. Influenza B. Candida albicans C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Streptococcus mutans

B

A yeast is what type of microorganism? A. Bacterium B. Fungus C. Virus D. Protozoan

A

Thrush is caused by: A. Candida albicans B. Streptococcus mutans C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Human herpesvirus 1

B

Bacilli are shaped like: A. Spheres B. Cylinders or rods C. Curved or spiral forms D. Flat disks

A

Cocci are shaped like ____________. A. Spheres B. Cylinders or rods C. Curved or spiral forms D. Flat disks

C

Choose the bacterial structure that controls the flow of nutrients and waste into and out of the cell? A. Cell wall B. Flagellum C. Cytoplasmic membrane D. Capsule

D

Which of the following bacterial structures interferes with phagocytosis? A. Cell Wall B. Flagellum C. Cytoplasmic membrane D. Capsule

D

Which of the following bacterial structures helps the cell to attach to surfaces? A. Cell wall B. Capsule C. Cytoplasmic membrane D. Fimbriae

B

The main function of the bacterial cell wall is to: A. Protect against drying B. Protect against crushing C. To control the exit of wastes from the cell D. Provide the cell with locomotion

C

The main function of bacterial fimbriae is to: A. Control the exit of wastes from the cell B. Protect against crushing C. Allow the cell to attach to surfaces D. Protect against drying

D

Choose an environment in which psychrophilic bacteria grow best. A. In the human body B. In hot water heaters C. Anywhere the temperature is 37 degrees Celsius D. In the refrigerator

A

Which of the following groups of bacteria grow best inside your refrigerator? A. Psychrophilic B. Thermophiles C. Mesophils D. Acidophils

D

How would prevent the growth of an obligate anaerobe? A. Adjust the pH of the environment to 7 B. Remove protein of the environment C. Maintain the environmental temperature to 37 degrees Celsius D. Add O2 to the environment

D

Those bacteria that die in the presence of oxygen are called: A. Aerobes B. Mesophils C. Acidogens D. Anaerobes

A

Acidogenic bacteria are noted for producing large amounts of: A. Acids B. Vitamins C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates

A

What temperatures are the surest way to kill bacteria (or any other type of microorganisms) in the shortest amount of time? A. Sterilizing temperatures B. Freezing temperatures C. Fluctuating temperatures D. Refrigerator temperatures

B

Anaerobes are bacteria that: A. Require oxygen for growth B. Grow only in the absence of oxygen C. Can multiply in the presence or absence of oxygen D. Are killed in the presence or absence of oxygen

D

Agar is a polysaccharide from seaweed that is used to: A. Kill bacteria B. Grow viruses C. Kill viruses D. Culture bacteria

C

What environmental condition will promote the growth of an aciduric bacterium? A. Low O2 level B. Low nutrient level C. Low pH D. Low temperature

A

Which type of microbe is the most difficult to kill? A. Endospores B. Vegetative bacteria C. Viruses D. Chlamydiae

B

Select the best description of a bacterial endospore. A. A fungus resistant to chemicals B. One of the most resistant forms of life to heat and chemicals C. A virus that infects the root canal D. A bacterium that grows at low temperatures

B

Some bacteria can change into special forms that are dormant and are highly resistant to heat, chemicals, and drying? These are called: A. Rickettsia B. Endospores C. Mold D. Vegetative cells

C

Chlamydia and Rickettsia are examples of: A. Viruses B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Protozoa

D

Which of the following diseases is a bacterial disease? A. Influenza B. Hepatitis B C. Mumps D. Dental caries

D

What is the result of a virus invading a host cell? A. There is no effect on the cell B. The virus always dies C. The host cell always dies D. The host cell may die or be changed

C

Viruses cause diseases in humans because they: A. Produce exotoxins B. Produce endotoxins C. Invade and kill or damage cells in our body D. "Swim" away from phagocytes using their flagella

D

During the life cycle of a virus, what is the next step after the virus attaches to the host cell? A. Uncoating B. Release C. Replication D. Enters the cell

B

The genes of a virus are in the: A. Capsid B. Nucleic acid core C. Envelope D. Capsid and envelope

B

What is the final product from the bacterial fermentation of sugar (e.g., glucose)? A. Nucleic acid B. Lactic acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Pyruvic acid

D

Which of the following substances is a component of some bacterial outer membranes and when released in the human body contributes to the causes of periodontal disease? A. Lysozyme B. Mesosome C. Capsid D. Endotoxin

A

Agents that prevent bacterial growth without killing them are referred to as: A. Bacteriostatic agents B. Sterilant agents C. Disinfectant agents D. Nucleic acid agents

B

Colony-forming-units (CFU) are defined as: A. measurements of the diameter of colonies that develop on an agar medium. B. individual bacterial cells or a small group of cells each of which can form a colony on agar media. C. units used to estimate the distance a bacterial cell can move away from its colony on agar media. D. highly resistant forms of certain bacteria.

C

How are bacterial spores important in dental infection control? A. They cause periodontal disease. B. They are used to monitor surface disinfection. C. They are used to test the functioning and use of sterilizers. D. They cause thrush.

D

Which of the following bacteria are important in metabolizing sugar to acids that cause dental caries? A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus B. Bacillus atrophaeus C. Clostridium sporogenes D. Streptococcus mutans

A

Which of the following represents the pH values of acid? A. 0 to 7 B. 7 to 14 C. 8 to 10 D. 10 to 12

T

T or F: Bacteria are larger than viruses

T

T or F: Bacterial growth is defined as an increase in cell numbers

T

T or F: Human viruses are smaller than bacteria

F

T or F: If bacteria grow in a broth culture, the broth remains clear

T

T or F: Unlike bacterial diseases, most viral diseases cannot be successfully treated

A

Microbes that are usually harmless but can cause disease under certain conditions are called: A. Opportunistic pathogens B. Toxigenic pathogens C. Endogenous pathogens D. Exogenous pathogens

B

Microbes that cause disease by producing a toxin are called: A. Opportunistic pathogens B. Toxigenic pathogens C. Endogenous pathogens D. Exogenous pathogens

C

Members of the normal body microbiota that can cause disease are called: A. Obligate intracellular parasite B. Toxigenic pathogens C. Endogenous pathogens D. Exogenous pathogens

C

The difference between an infection and an infectious disease is that an: A. Infection never causes an infectious disease B. Infection comes after the infectious disease has already started C. Infectious disease is an infection that causes damage to the body D. Infectious disease and an infection can never involve the same microbe

D

That period of an infectious disease between the initial infection and the time when the first symptoms occurs is called the: A. Convalescent stage B. Acute stage C. Prodromal stage D. Incubation stage

B

That period of an infectious disease when the symptoms are at or near the maximum level is called the: A. Convalescent stage B. Acute stage C. Prodromal stage D. Incubation stage

A

That period of an infectious disease when the symptoms are declining is called the: A. Convalescent stage B. Acute stage C. Prodromal stage D. Incubation stage

D

An asymptomatic carrier can be in which of the following stages of an infectious disease? A. Convalescent stage B. Acute stage C. Prodromal stage D. Incubation stage

A

The mode of microbe transmission that involves touching the patient's teeth while not wearing gloves is called: A. Direct contact B. Indirect contact C. Droplet infection D. Airborne infection

B

The mode of microbe transmission that involves a needlestick is called: A. Direct contact B. Indirect contact C. Droplet infection D. Airborne infection

D

The mode of microbe transmission that involves small droplet nuclei such as those generated from dental aerosols is called: A. Direct contact B. Indirect contact C. Droplet infection D. Airborne infection

C

Which of the following best describes antibodies? A. Chemicals produced by bacteria or fungi that can kill other microorganisms. B. Proteins that are released from bacteria to degrade large substances to smaller chemicals that can be taken into the cell and used for growth. C. Special proteins produced in our body in the presence of antigens that aid in destroying those antigens or help in their removal from the body D. A part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria that enhances inflammation when released from the bacterial cell.

B

Which of the following best describes extracellular enzymes? A. Chemicals produced by bacteria or fungi that can kill other microorganisms. B. Proteins that are released from bacteria to degrade large substances to smaller chemicals that can be taken into the cell and used for growth. C. Special proteins produced in our body in the presence of antigens that aid in destroying those antigens or help in their removal from the body. D. A part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria that enhances inflammation when released from the bacterial cell.

B

The major source of disease agents in the dental office is: A. Dental unit water B. The mouth of the patient C. Air D. Dust

D

Special proteins that are made by the body after a microbe invades the body are called: A. Antigens B. Acids C. Antiseptics D. Antibodies

C

The next to the last step in the development of an infectious disease is: A. Damage to the body B. Escape from the source C. Infection D. Spread to a new person E. Entry into a new person

D

Host defense mechanisms that we are born with and are always active are referred to as _________ defenses. A. Acquired B. Long-term C. Artificial D. Innate

B

Hay fever and asthma and are examples of: A. Bacterial diseases B. Allergic reactions C. Contact dermatitis D. Anaphylatic shock

C

Which of the following is a chemical barrier to infectious diseases? A. Ciliary escalator B. Hair in nose C. Lysozyme D. Coughing

A

Which of the following is a physical barrier to infectious diseases? A. Mucous membranes B. Acid in the stomach C. Complement fragments D. Interferon

C

What type of body cells makes antibodies? A. Brain cells B. Red blood cells C. Lymphocytes D. Phagocytes

D

What type of cells engulf ("eat") and destroy bacteria? A. Brain cells B. Red blood cells C. Lymphocytes D. Phagocytes

A

Special proteins that are made by the body after a microbe invades the body and that can destroy that microbe are called: A. Antibodies B. Antigens C. Barriers D. Enzymes

B

An allergic reaction is best defined as: A. A disease caused by a microbe B. Damage to the body by the immune system C. The multiplication of a microbe on or in the body D. A disease caused by a microbe that invaded the body from the outside

C

Which of the following patients appear the same? A. Normal patients and acute stage B. Normal patients and prodromal patients C. Asymptomatic patients and normal patients D. Asymptomatic patients and acute stage patients

A

The prodromal stages of a disease is defined as the: A. Appearance of early symptoms B. Recovery phase of a disease C. Period between infection and development of symptoms D. Time when the symptoms are maximal

B

Aerosol particles generated from the use of a prophylaxis angle mainly enter the body through: A. Breaks in the skin and ingestion B. Inhalation and mucous membranes C. Only breaks in the skin D. Mucous membranes and breaks in the skin

A

Some strains of Streptococcus mutans are aciduric which allows them: A. to survive within a carious lesion. B. attach to oral mucous membranes. C. resist phagocytosis. D. to be inhaled.

D

A very important disease-producing property of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that interferes with a host defense mechanism is: A. being aciduric. B. producing histolytic enzymes. C. containing endotoxin. D. resisting phagocytic digestion.

C

Anaphylactic shock is defined as: A. a bacterial disease of the lungs and skin also called tuberculosis. B. a viral disease of the brain and spinal cord similar to bacterial meningitis. C. an allergy to a substance distributed throughout the body affecting the blood, lungs, and heart. D. the production of large amounts of antibodies in response to a particular bacterial disease

A

Which of the following best defines an antigen? A. An antigen is a foreign substance, cell or microbes that invades the body and activates an immune response. B. Special proteins produced by the body in response to an invading microbe. C. Cells of the body that engulf and destroy invading bacteria. D. Agents used to treat bacterial diseases.

D

The immunity that develops from receiving the hepatitis B vaccination series is called: A. Innate immunity B. Allergic immunity C. Interferon immunity D. Artificial immunity

B

Spreading a microbe from one patient to another by reusing improperly sterilized instruments is referred to as cross-contamination through: A. Direct contact B. Indirect contact C. Droplet infection D. Airborne infection

C

Choose the step in the chain of infection that immediately follows "mode of spread." A. Reservoir B. Portal of exit C. Portal of entry D. Susceptible host

A

Having a patient use an antimicrobial mouthrinse immediately before dental treatment is an attempt to break the chain of infection at which link? A. Portal of exit B. Portal of entry C. Mode of spread D. Susceptible host

D

Immunization against hepatitis B addresses which link in the chain of infection? A. Portal of exit B. Portal of entry C. Mode of spread D. Susceptible host

C

Sterilization of contaminated dental instruments before they are used on a subsequent patient interferes with which link in the chain of infection? A. Portal of exit B. Portal of entry C. Mode of spread D. Susceptible host

F

T or F: Our bodies are usually free of bacteria except when we get sick from an exogenous disease.

A

New infectious disease that have not been recognized before are referred to as: A. Emerging diseases B. Opportunistic diseases C. Endogenous diseases D. Exogenous diseases

A

What do the following pathogens have in common? (Streptococcus pneumoniae, enterococci, Staphylococcus aureus, Enterobacteriaceae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Clostridium difficile) A. They all have strains that are antibiotic-resistant B. They can all cause the same type of infection C. They are all viruses

B

Pathogenic antibiotic-resistant bacteria are referred to as: A. Endogenous pathogens B. Superbugs C. Gram-positive bacteria D. Psychrophiles

D

In 2003 a coronavirus was discovered as the cause of ____________. A. Monkeypox in humans B. Hepatitis F C. Gastric ulcers D. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

B

An example of a disease that emerged through international commerce and travel is: A. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome B. Cholera from strain O139 C. Rift Valley fever D. Lyme disease

B

Which of the following disease emerged as a result of a breakdown in a public health measure? A. HIV disease B. Diphtheria in the USSR C. Lyme disease D. Rift valley fever

C

Which form of hepatitis was discovered most recently? A. Type E B. Type C C. Type G D. Type D

C

In 1995, human herpesvirus 8 was associated with human _________________. A. Hand-foot mouth disease B. Roseola C. Kaposi sarcoma D. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

C

HIV disease is an example of a disease that has mainly been spread through: A. Ecological changes B. Microbial changes C. Human behavioral changes D. Breakdowns in public health

B

In 2014 over 11,000 people died from Ebola disease in what part of the world? A. New Mexico B. Western Africa C. Canada D. India

C

Which of the following microbes can cause a respiratory disease (mainly in immunocompromised persons) and has emerged as an opportunistic pathogen found in technologically advanced water handling devices including in dental unit waterlines? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Bartonella henselae C. Legionella pheumophila D. Cryptosporidium parvum

D

New outbreaks of influenza emerge frequently (almost every year) because of: A. A breakdown on public health measures B. Ecological changes that bring humans and animals together in new ways C. Changes in human behaviors D. Microbial changes

B

What disease was caused be a highly virulent strain of bacterium that developed in India and was spread to South America? A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. HIV disease D. Lyme disease

C

A care giver received a sharps injury while caring for a patient with unexplained bleeding, vomiting, diarrhea, severe headache, and muscle pain. After 21 days the care giver began to develop the same symptoms. What disease is involved? A. Legionnaires disease B. Lyme disease C. Ebola disease D. SARS

A

Mass food processing technology lead to the emergence of hemorrhagic colitis (and the complication of hemolytic uremic syndrome) caused by a special strain of _________. A. Escherichia coli B. Bartonella henselae C. Legionella pheumophila D. Cryptosporidium parvum

D

What causes the critical pH to be reached during formation of dental caries? A. The saliva stagnates and putrefies producing a large amount of acid B. The bacteria is saliva cause an immune response to occur lowering the pH C. Lysozyme in saliva lyses bacteria causing the release of internal chemicals from the dead bacterial cells which lower the pH in the mouth D. Plaque bacteria convert dietary sugar into acids

B

A bacterial mechanism involved in plaque formation based upon cell population density is called: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Quorum sensing C. Catabolism D. Cellulitis

C

The two most important bacteria in causing dental caries are: A. Mutans streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus B. Lactobacillus acidophilus and Porphyromonas gingivalis C. Mutans streptococci and Lactobacillus acidophilus D. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans and mutans streptococci

B.

What is the most caries conductive component of our diet? A. Protein B. Sucrose C. Fatty acid D. Cellulose

C

Mutans streptococci convert ____________ to glucans that are used by these bacteria to from plaque. A. Starch B. Omega-3 Fatty acids C. Sucrose D. Fructose

A

Which of the following periodontal diseases occurs in persons with normal body defense mechanisms? A. Chronic B. Rapidly progressive C. Prepubertal D. Juvenile

C

Oral biofilm (dental plaque) is: A. Accumulated food debris that occurs in the absence of oral hygiene B. An accumulation of glycoproteins from saliva C. A microbial mass that accumulates in the absence of oral hygiene D. An aggregation of white blood cells that come from the gingival sulcus

A

How many different genera of bacteria may be isolated from human mouths? A. At least 50 B. 100 C. 100 million D. 200 billion

B

Calculus is: A. Accumulated food debris that occurs in the absence of oral hygiene B. Mineralized plaque C. A microbial mass that accumulates in the absence of oral hygiene D. An aggregation of white blood cells that come from the gingival sulcus

B

What actually destroys the tooth enamel in dental caries? A. Amino acids in the diet B. Acids made by bacteria C. Fats in saliva D. Nucleic acids

B

Which of the following bacteria is the most important in causing the progression of a carious lesion after the lesion has been initiated? A. Streptococcus sanguis B. Lactobacillus acidophilus C. Porphyromonas gingivalis D. Prevotella intermedia

A

Dental plaque is best defined as: A. A microbial mass B. Composed of pieces of food that have stuck to the teeth C. Mineralized proteins D. Dried saliva

A

How soon do bacteria begin to reattach to the tooth surface and start forming plaque again after a prophylaxis? A. Within seconds B. 12 hours C. 1 day D. 1 week

A

Removing dental plaque and instituting good oral hygiene will reverse which of the following diseases? A. Gingivitis B. Periodontitis C. Dental caries in dentin D. Strep throat

A

The three mechanisms of action of topical fluoride are (1) inhibiting bacterial metabolism after diffusing into the bacteria as hydrogen fluoride; (2) inhibiting demineralization when present at the crystal surfaces of teeth during an acid challenge; and (3): A. Enhancing remineralization B. Stopping plaque formation C. Killing all oral bacteria D. Enhancing saliva flow

C

Untreated dental caries can lead to: A. Strep throat B. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis C. Pulpitis D. Fever blisters

B

The pellicle is best defined as: A. Part of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacterial cells B. A proteinaceous layer that coats the teeth exposed to saliva C. That part of the bacterial gene that codes for acid production D. The protein coat of viruses

C

Most of the bacteria important in causing periodontal diseases are: A. In the group called mutans streptococci B. Gram-positive C. Gram-negative D. Also important causes of strep throat

D

Where do periapical infections occur? A. Around the tooth pulp B. In the outer portion of the tooth enamel C. In the deep part of the tooth dentin D. In the tissue around the tooth apex

B

Further progression of a periapical infection may cause: A. Strep throat B. Cellulitis C. Pulpitis D. Enamel caries

C

For microorganisms to colonize the mouth (become established members of the oral microbiota) they must: A. Not be infection with bacteriophages B. Be gram-positive bacteria that are aciduric C. Attach to oral surfaces and be able to multiply in the oral environment D. Come from the nonhuman environment (e.g. water, dust, soil)

F

T or F: Simple or acute gingivitis involves the bone in which the teeth are set.

F

T or F: The same bacteria that cause dental caries also causes periodontal diseases

T

T or F: Plaque causes periodontal diseases

F

T or F: Periodontitis occurs only in older adults

A

Which of the following forms of hepatitis is transmitted through contaminated food or water? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D

B

The greatest occupational risks for exposure to hepatitis B virus are: (1) blood and saliva contamination of cuts and cracks on the skin or ungloved hands or hands with torn gloves; (2) spraying of blood and saliva onto open lesions on the skin or onto mucous membranes; and (3): A. By ingesting contaminated water B. Through injuries with contaminated sharps C. Through inhalation D. By shaking hands with patients

A

What bloodborne disease has the greatest potential for occupational transmission risk to dental professionals? A. Hepatitis B B. HIV C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis A

C

The best way for you to avoid contracting a bloodborne disease in the office is to: A. Not shake hands with patients B. Wear a mask all day long even between patients C. Handle sharps carefully D. Disinfect operatory surfaces with undiluted bleach

B

How does HIV cause AIDS? A. It destroys the liver B. It destroys the body defenses against diseases C. It destroys the ability to control muscle action D. It paralyzes the body

A

Which of the following hepatitis diseases seldom, if ever, establishes a chronic infection? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D

A

Which of the following hepatitis diseases does not have a chronic carrier state? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D

D

HIV makes people sick by: A. Damaging the liver B. Causing a respiratory infection C. Causing food poisoning D. By destroying their immune system

B

HIV-disease is not spread: A. To a developing fetus from the infected mother B. By inhalation C. Through percutaneous exposure D. From sexual activities

B

A vaccine is available for which of the following types of hepatitis? A. Hepatitis A and C B. Hepatitis B and A C. Hepatitis C and B D. Hepatitis C and D

B

A hepatitis B carrier is: A. HIV-positive B. HbsAg-positive C. Anti HBsAg-positive D. HBs-Ag-negative

B

What is the main ingredient in the hepatitis B vaccine? A. Antibodies to the HBsAg B. HBsAg C. HIV-Ag D. HBeAg

C

A person who is positive for HBsAg and ______________ is highly infectious for hepatitis B (can more easily spread the disease). A. HBcAg B. Anti-HBc C. HBeAg D. Anti-HBe

D

Which antibody is formed after a person responds to the hepatitis B vaccine? A. Anti-HBc B. Anti-HBe C. Anti-HAV D. Anti-HBs

A

Which of the following forms of hepatitis is not bloodborne? A. A B. B C. C D. D

D

Which of the hepatitis viruses cause disease only in persons who are simultaneously or previously infected with the hepatitis B virus? A. Type A B. Type C C. Type E D. Type D

D

The vaccine for hepatitis B also protects against: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis E D. Hepatitis D

A

Which of the following AIDS exposure categories has had the highest number of AIDS cases in the US? A. Men who have sex with men B. Injection drug abusers C. Men who have sex with men and who also are injection drug abusers D. Heterosexual contact

B

A percutaneous route of exposure to an infectious agent means that exposure occurred: A. Through the nose B. Through the skin C. Through the mouth D. Through the eyes

C

Most of the healthcare workers who have occupationally acquired HIV infection from infected patients had what type of exposure? A. Through the mouth B. Through the eyes C. Through the skin D. Through the nose

A

As of 2015 how many DOCUMENTED cases of occupationally related HIV transmissions have been reported in dental personnel? A. 0 B. 6 C. 57 D. 143

C

What present of those infected with hepatitis C virus develop chronic liver disease? A. 5 - 10% B. 20 - 30% C. 60 - 70% D. 90 - 100%

C

When were the hepatitis C infection rates the highest? A. 1950s - 1960s B. 1960s - 1970s C. 1970s - 1980s D. 1980s - 1990s

B

What is the most likely route of hepatitis B transmission from an infected patient to an unvaccinated dental assistant wearing, exam gloves, protective eyewear and a long-sleeved gown but no face mask? A. Inhalation of salivary aerosols B. Needlestick C. Swallowing salivary droplets D. Touching a blood-contaminated instrument

D

How long can the hepatitis C virus in blood dried in an inanimate surface remain infectious? A. Up to 2 days B. Up to 1 week C. Up to 3 weeks D. Up to 6 weeks

D

What is the least important way a dental assistant can prevent the chairside spread of HIV from a dental patient? A. Prevent sharps injuries B. Wear examination gloves C. Wear protective eyewear D. Have the patient use a preprocedure mouthrise

T

T or F: A person infected with HIV can have the virus present in saliva

C

What microbe causes denture stomatitis? A. Streptococcus mutans B. Herpes simplex virus C. Candida albicans D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D

What microbe causes “strep throat”? A. Streptococcus mutans B. Herpes simplex virus C. Candida albicans D. Streptococcus pyogens

A

Which herpes virus causes most of the oral and ocular herpes infections and some of the genital herpes infections? A. Type 1 B. Type 3 C. Type 5 D. Type 8

B

Which of the following is a respiratory disease that can be screened for using the Mantoux test or purified protein derivative test? A. Strep throat B. Tuberculosis C. HIV-disease D. Syphilis

D

Some strains of which of the following bacteria are known as “flesh-eating” bacteria? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D

Rheumatic heart disease occurs in a small percent of those previously infected with: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D. Streptococcus pyogenes.

A

All of the following microbes may be found in the throat, but which one causes most middle ear infections? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria meningitides C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Candida albicans

C

Which of the following types of respiratory infections is usually caused by inhaling or aspirating contaminated water? A. Chickenpox B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Legionnaire disease D. Influenza

A

Which of the following is a systemic disease that commonly produces lesions in the mouth? A. Chickenpox B. Tuberculosis C. Legionnaire disease D. Influenza

A

Which of the following diseases may produce palatal petechiae, widespread erythema (reddening) of the oral mucosa, and swelling of the uvula? A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Influenza C. Herpes labialis D. Legionnaire's disease

C

About 5% to 10% of the cases of _______________ occur in or around the mouth in the form of an open ulcer commonly on the tongue or lips. A. Tuberculosis B. Chickenpox C. Syphilis D. Infectious mononucleosis

D

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis mainly occurs in children and is usually caused by: A. Human herpesvirus 8 B. Human herpesvirus 6. C. Human herpesvirus 3 D. Human herpesvirus 4

D

Herpes labialis is caused by: A. human herpesvirus 8. B. human herpesvirus 6. C. human herpesvirus 3. D. human herpesvirus 1.

B

Entrance of the herpes virus through breaks in the skin on unprotected hands and fingers can lead to vesicle development at these sites called: ____________. A. Herpes liabilis B. Herpetic whitlow C. Secondary herpes D. Recurrent herpes