GLY 101 Exam 2

0.0(0) Reviews
Report Flashcard set

Spaced Repetition

spaced repetition





Practice Test



150 Terms
😃 Not studied yet (150)
Which rock type is most likely to contain fossils
Which rock type makes up the majority of earths outermost solid surface
What is diagenesis
the changes that convert sediments to sedimentary rocks after deposition
Which of these processes describes eroding of existent rocks and ions to produce sediments?
Which minerals are the main constituents in most sedimentary rocks
quartz and clay minerals
which of the following rocks composed of silt- and clay- sized particles displays fissility
Which environment would be likely to produce a black shale
_______ describes the range in particle sizes in a detrital sedimentary rock
Which of the following methods of transportation will result in the nest degree of sorting
Which of the following methods of transportation will result in the least sorted deposit
which of the following best describes the texture of a conglomerate
rounded fragments; poorly sorted
Which is the the most abundant chemical sedimentary rock
______ processes, such as evaporation or precipitation, can precipitate chemical sediments
The famous Permian _____ reefs in the Guadalupe mountains national park are a rich source of organic material.
_____ are tiny "seed" particles created when small sediments or shell fragments are rolled waves in water supersaturated with calcium carbonate
Which of the following best describes interbedded gypsum and halite
evaporitic sedimentary rocks
A soft, porous rock made up almost entirley of the hard parts of microscopic marine organisms is _______
Which of the following locations will see the deposition of sylvite and gypsum
evaporating sea basins
The mineral _____ is composed of calcium carbonate with magnesium incorporated in its chemical structure
Which of these forms of coals is a metamorphic rock?
Compaction will be the most significant lithification process for which of the following rocks
The primary basis for classifying detrital rocks is _____, whereas the primary basis for classifying chemical rocks is _______
Particle size; mineral composition
Medium grains are those that are between _____ mm in size
1/16 to 2
A _____ describes the observation of successive changes in a laterally continuous sedimentary layer that are visible and are interpreted as a result of many depositional processes taking place over a large area.
Which of the following represents the single most common characteristic structures in sedimentary rocks?
A ______ marks the end of one episode of sedimentation and the beginning of another
bedding plane
______ is a variety of sandstone that is associated with submarine landslides called turbidity currents.
Which of these aquatic organisms can form chemical sediments
What sediment particle size(s) makes up shale
silt and clay
What information can evaporites provide about the past environment of deposition
The paleoenvironment was wet
______ is the process by which a rock changes form or mineral content as a result of environmental changes such as heat and pressure
What is the definition of a parent rock
The rock that was altered by metamorphism
Which of the following is the parent rock of quartzite
Which low grade metamorphic rock displays thin, parallel layers and contains very fine grains of mica
Which of the following lists of metamorphic rocks places the rocks in order from lowest metamorphic grade to highest
slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss
Which of the following rocks is produced by high-grade metamorphism
______ is the process by which new mineral grains larger than the original mineral grains form as a result of metamorphic heat
Generally speaking, how does the chemical composition of most metamorphic rocks compare to that of the parent rock
nearly same
What kind of force creates foliation in metamorphic rocks
What are foliations
roughly parallel layers of mineral crystals aligned perpendicular to the direction of pressure
Which of the following is not an example of foliation
recrystallization of spherical minerals to create crystalline metamorphic rock, with no alignments of minerals
Metamorphic rocks can sometimes contain unusually large grains surrounded by a fine-grained matrix of other minerals. These large crystals are called _______
A coarse-grained, banded metamorphic rock in which elongated minerals predominate is called ________
Which of the following is not an environment of metamorphism
slow cooling of magma
Which of the following scenarios best describes the formation of hornfels
shales and mudstone are baked during contact metamorphism
Which style of metamorphism will be generated by a magma pluton
______ is a widespread type of metamorphism typically associated with mountain building
regional metamorphism
______ are materials that are good indicators of the metamorphic environment in which they formed and can be used to distinguish between various zones of metamorphism
index minerals
What is a metamorphic facies
an assemblage of minerals that form in very similar metamorphic environments
A(n) ______ facies is associated with a high-pressure, low-temperature environment
What is the most important factor driving metamorphism
Why will metamorphic rocks found in a containing metamorphism aureole be non-foliated
Because the main agent of metamorphism is heat, which will result in intergrown crystals
_______ metamorphism is responsible for the emplacement of metallic ore veins
_______ metamorphism will occur where two blocks of rock are grinding against each other
fault zone
Why is quartz a bad mineral to use to determine a metamorphic environment
because silicate minerals do not metamorphose
What kind of temperature and pressure conditions will exist in a burial metamorphism environment
high temperature high pressure
What is the average increase in temperature along the geothermal metamorphism environment
25°C per km
What are the two main categories of metamorphic texture
foliated and nonfoliated
Most metamorphic rocks near the earths surface are derived from three common sedimentary rocks. Which three
shale, quartz sandstone, and limestone
Which list below contains three rocks that are produced by contact metamorphism
quartzite, marble, and hornfels
A(n) _____ is a type of unconformity with parallel beds above and below the erosional surface
Which of the following is an example of a numerical date
A meteorite impacted the earth 65 million years ago
Which of the following is an example of a relative date
The Silurian period came before the Devonian period
What scientific development made accurate numerical dating possible
discovery of radioactivity
What is the definition of an inclusion
a fragment of one rock unit enclosed in another rock unit
When rocks are ______ several adjacent layers were deposited without interruption
What is a fossil
evidence of past life that can include skeletal as well as trace material
A black, organic residue of an ancient fern would be an example of which type of fossilization
Which of the following is an example of a trace fossil
When a shell is buried in sediment and subsequently dissolved, a cavity called a _______ is left behind. When this cavity is filled with sediments, a ______ is created.
Mold; cast
A worm burrow is an example of which type of fossilization
Trace fossil
What is stratigraphic correlation
Matching up rocks of similar age in different regions
The principle of _______ states that organisms succeed one another in a definite, determinable order that can be used to recognize a specific time period
fossil succession
When correlating rock between widely separated areas or between continents, what features(s) do geologists rely on the most to link distant rock units of similar age
What is an index fossil
An organism that was geographically widespread but limited to a short span of geologic time
What is a fossil assemblage
A group of fossils used to establish the age of a rock unit
If 235U has 95 protons, how many neutrons does it have
_______ is a technique where the decay rate of radioactive isotopes is measured and used to determine the age of a geologic material
Radiometric dating
What is the definition of half-life
The time it takes for half of the parent isotope to decay to the daughter
Which particle of an atom will determine the atomic number of an element
You are trying to determine the age of a lava flow using an isotope with a half-life of 1.5 million years. If the sample has gone through four half-lives, what is the age of the rock
6 million years
What materials are best dated with carbon-14
organic materials
What is the effective maximum range for carbon- 14 dating
70,000 years
A deposit of volcanic tuff contains the isotope potassium- 40 which is slowly decaying into argon-40. How might the apparent age of the sample be affected if the volcanic tuff is heated and remains heated for a long period of time
Younger than actual age
What does "zoic" in the eras of the geologic time scale refer to
which two conditions are the most important in order for an organism to become fossilized
rapid burial and possession of hard parts
A neutron is a combination of a(n) _______ and a(n) _______
electron; proton
The white granite of the Idaho batholith near Boise, Idaho, contains dark gray xenoliths of metamorphic material. Which is older and how do you know
Xenoliths; the principle of inclusions
Which of the following would make the best index fossil: Olenellus (522-510 million), Flexicalymene (490-418 million) or Phacops (418-360 million)
What is the ultimate source of naturally occurring carbon- 14
Cosmic ray collisions and neutron capture involving nitrogen
______ refers to the changes in shape or position of a rock body in response to differential stress
Which of the following is the best description for structural geology
study of rock deformation in response to tectonic forces
How does compressional force change a rock body
Shorten and thicken rock
How does tensional force change a rock body
Stretch and thin the rock
Which tectonic boundary is associated with compressional stress
A rubber band being stretched in preparation to fire across the room is an example of what kind of deformation
elastic deformation
Unbending a paper clip wire is an example of what kind of deformation
Ductile deformation
If you were to place a circular mark on a rock surface and then subject it to shear stress, what shape would the circle then become
Which of the following rocks would be more likely to experience brittle deformation rather than ductile deformation when subjected to stresses that exceed their strength
A chocolate bar will behave similarly to a rock. If you try to bend a chocolate bar at room temperature it will ______ exhibiting ______ behavior
Snap; brittle
What is a fault
A fracture in a rock along which motion has occurred
Folds form in ______ temperature _____ pressure environments
High; high
faults form in _______ temperature ______ pressure environments
low; high
A ______ is a circular fold where the youngest layers are in the middle and the oldest layers are on the outside
You are accuracy-checking a geologic map of a structural dome with the inner layers dating back to the Paleogene and its outer layers dating back to the Permian. You immediately know this map is wrong. What is your evidence
Domes have the oldest layers in the middle, not the youngest
What is the outcrop pattern of a plunging syncline
The layers will open up in the direction of plunge
A(n) _______ fold has limbs that are tilted beyond the vertical to the point that the axial plane is horizontal, giving it the appearance of lying on its side
Which tectonic boundary would have many normal faults associated with it
A _____ fault is created when the hanging wall moves down relative to the footwall
What is the difference between a reverse fault and a thrust fault
A thrust fault has a fault angle less than 45 degrees whereas the angle of a reverse fault is greater
Which of the following scenarios would best indicate that a thrust fault is present at a location
Cambrian aged rocks have been shoved on top of Jurassic-aged rocks
Faults that exhibit both dip-slip and strike-slip movement are called _____ faults
Mountain ranges such as the Appalachians and the Himalayas are examples of mountains that formed as a result of _____ faulting.
A ______ fault has a vertical fault plane and shows movement parallel to the orientation of the fault
What are slickensides
polished and striated surfaces made on fault blocks
Which of the following are examples of fault block mountains
rocky mountains
________ is the compass direction of the line produced by the intersection of an inclined rock layer with a horizontal plane
_______ is the angle of inclination of the surface of a rock unit measured from a horizontal plane
Which of the following best describes the age relationship of the layers in a syncline
Oldest on the inside of the fold, youngest on the outside
Movements along normal faults can produce alternating upthrown and down-dropped fault blocks. What are the names associated with these blocks, respectively
horsts and grabens
What is the term for stored up energy released by earthquakes
What is an epicenter
The location on earths surface directly above the point of slippage
What is the definition of the focus
The exact location on the fault where slippage occurs
Which of the following researchers coined the term elastic rebound after the 1906 San Francisco earthquake
H. F. Reid
The elastic rebound associated with earthquakes is an example of ______ behavior
______ are smaller earthquakes of lesser magnitude, but nonetheless sometimes dangerous, that follow a major earthquake
Which tectonic boundary is associated with megathrust
Which tectonic boundary is responsible for the most powerful and destructive earthquakes recorded
What is the term used to describe slow, gradual displacement along a fault without the accumulation of significant strain
Fault creep
_______ is a measurement of displacement on the fault surface
Fault slip
The San Andreas fault is a ______ fault
_______ are records of seismic waves
_____ are instruments that sense earthquake waves and transmit them to recording device
The suspended weight in a seismograph allows it to remain ______, which allows it to give a wave reading after the earth moves
Which seismic waves are released first during an earthquake
P waves
What is the minimum number of points needed to pinpoint the epicenter location of an earthquake, using the radius of a circle of possible points, as obtained from the lag time in arrival between a P wave and an S wave
When going from a 5 to a 6 on the Richter scale, what is the increase in amplitude of seismic waves
32 times
What information is needed to determine the distance from the focus of an earthquake to the seismic receiving station
The time interval between the P and S waves
Generally speaking, which seismic waves will have the greatest amplitude on seismogram
Surface waves
Which of the following best describes a seismic gap
faults that have not been active for several million years
The _______ is a newer scale that measures the total energy released during an earthquake by determining the average amount of slip on the fault, the area of the fault surface that slipped, and the strength of the faulted rock
Moment magnitude scale
The modified Mercalli scale is ______
still used today by the US Geological survey to gather data from those who felt an earthquake
Which of the following would be the most unstable during an earthquake
Unconsolidated sediments
Propagation of fault slip occurs at a rate of about ______ per second
2 to 4 km
Which plate boundary type along the circum-pacific belt is responsible for the majority of that belt's earthquakes
During an earthquake, energy waves radiate outward in all directions through the interior from the _____ whereas energy waves radiate outward in all directions along the surface from the ______
Focus; epicenter
The ground shaking produced by large earthquakes is not only _____, but takes a ______ time than shaking produced by slippage along small fault segments
stronger; longer
What are the two categories of seismic waves
Body waves and surface waves
Earthquake A is classified as a 3 on the Richter scale. Earthquake B is classified as a 6. Approximately how many times more energy has earthquake B released than earthquake A
1,000 times
What is the highest level on the Mercalli intensity scale