EMR Exam 1

c

Components of the quality improvements process, as identified by the institute of Medicine, include all of the following, Except: a) safety b) timeliness c) teamwork d) efficiency

b

Communication with a physician via two-way radio or wireless telephone is an example of: a) indirect medical control b) online medical control c) off-line medical control d) standard operating protocol

a

Common functions of the EMS medical director include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) responding to the scene of an emergency b) ensuring that quality patient care is provided c) establishing medical policies and procedures d) providing direction during an EMR's initial training

b

Which of following statements regarding an EMR's attitude and conduct is NOT correct? a) As an EMR, you will be judged by your attitude and conduct b) A stern tone of voice will ensure that you gain your patient's confidence c) Information regarding the patient should not be shared w your family d) Maintaining a neat and professional appearance provides reassurance

d

When documenting the events of an emergency call, the EMR should include the: a) patient's presumptive diagnosis b) treatment provided by the paramedics c) names of all personnel at the scene d) treatment provided before EMS arrival

c

You are the first medically trained person to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle crash. The patient is conscious and is bleeding heavily from the head. He is still in the vehicle, which has power lines draped across the hood. You should: a) carefully remove the patient from the vehicle without touching any metal b) ask the patient to crawl out of the vehicle carefully without touching metal c) advise the patient to remain still and immediately contact the power company d) put on rubber gloves and carefully move the power lines away from the car

d

Upon arriving at the scene of a multiple-patient incident, the EMR's primary responsibility is to: a) advise the dispatcher that additional resources will be needed b) quickly gain access to all patients and begin immediate treatment c) protect bystanders from any hazards that may exist at the scene d) assess the environment to detect possible threats to his or her safety

c

Roles and Responsibilities of the EMR include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) prompt and safe response to the scene b) ensuring the safety self and other c) transporting the patient to the hospital d) adequately assessing every patient

d

A crucial piece of equipment that the EMR should have available includes a: a) bag-mask device b) portable hydraulic jack c) mechanical suction device d) mouth-to-mouth resuscitation device

a

the EMR must possess the ability to : a) treat patients using limited equipment b) sustain a patient's life for several hours c) avoid improvisation whenever possible d) function at the same level as a paramedic

d

Skills commonly performed by the EMR include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) treating shock b) splinting fractures c) bleeding control d) intravenous therapy

a

To provide the best possible care for the patient: a) all EMS personnel must function effectively as a team. b) a paramedic must be present at each and every emergency c) the patient must receive rapid transport to the closest hospital d) the medical director must be notified during every emergency

b

You are at the scene of a shooting. The patient, who is being cared for by paramedics, is unconscious and has severe uncontrollable bleeding from his injury. As an EMR, your MOST important function is to: a) keep bystanders away from the patient b) help the paramedics prepare for rapid transport c) factually document the care that provided d) report your observations to law enforcement

b

A 33-year-old woman has a possible broken left ankle. She is in significant pain but is conscious and otherwise stable. This patient: a) does not require transport to the hospital b) requires transport but without lights and siren c) may deteriorate and require prompt transport d) should be rapidly transported to the closest hospital

c

A patient requires rapid transport to hospital when: a) he or she requires care that can be provided only by a physician at the hospital b) the patient's condition may deteriorate if he or she is not transported fairly quickly c) EMS personnel are unable to give the patient adequate life-saving care in the field d) traffic is extremely heavy and the patient's condition requires treatment by a physician

a

Which of the following is NOT a criterion used by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration(NHTSA) to evaluate an EMS system? a) billing and collections b) resource management c) regulation and policy d) education of the public

c

The US Department of Transportation's responsibility is to: a) determine each EMR;s scope of practice b) credential the EMR through a system of testing c) develop the national education standards for the EMR d) maintain a registry of all certified EMRs in the country

a

All of the following are examples of illness or injury programs, EXCEPT: a) one-rescuer CPR b) alcohol awareness c) diabetes screenings d) car seat installation

b

The EMS system can be considered a component of public health because: a) EMS provides transportation directly to an emergency department b) the services it provides are available to all people in a community c) its primary role is to provide illness and injury prevention programs d) the health department machines that EMS responders carry certain equipment

b

Which of the following statements regarding transport of a patient to the hospital is correct? a) Any sick or injured patient should be transported to the closest hospital, regardless of the patient's condition b) Patients may require immediate stabilization at the closest hospital and then transfer to another facility c) EMRs are legally obligated to accompany the patient in the back of the ambulance to the hospital d) in most states and EMS systems , EMRs are not authorized to assist the EMT in the back of the ambulance

d

Fire units are often a crucial part of the EMS system because they: a) provide protection and control of the scene b) are better trained than EMTs to assist paramedics c) always arrive at the scene before EMTs or paramedics d) provide specialized rescue such as patient extrication

c

What level of EMS provider is able to perform limited ALS skills? a) EMR b) EMT c) advanced EMT(AEMT) d) Paramedic

a

Which of the following interventions would the EMR MOST likely perform at the scene of a cardiac arrest? a) cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and defibrillation b) insertion of an endotracheal tube c) administration of certain medications d) initiation of an intravenous line

c

When EMTs or paramedics arrive at the scene of an emergency, the EMR should: a) accompany the patient to the receiving medical facility b) assume that his or her assistance will no longer be required c) assist the a EMTs in continuing the care that he or she initiated d) obtain a signature from the EMT who is assuming patient care

c

A basic life support (BLS) ambulance is MOST accurately defined as: a) any transport vehicle that is staffed by at least two EMTs b) an emergency response vehicle equipped with a defibrillator c) a properly equipped vehicle that is staffed by EMT personnel d) any transport vehicle staffed by EMTs with additional training

a

A cardiac arrest patient's MOST crucial contact with the EMS system occurs when: a) trained EMRs arrive at the patient's side b) medical control is made aware of the situation c) paramedic arrive an administer advanced care d) the receiving hospital is made aware of the situation

a

Fire fighters and law enforcement personnel are likely to be the EMRs in most emergencies because: a) of their location or speed in responding to the call b) they are typically paid and are on call 24-hrs a day c) most communities do not have EMTs or paramedics d) they are trained in all aspects of an emergency call

b

Enhanced 9-1-1 centers have the capability to: a) provide ALS instructions to the caller b) determine the physical location of the caller via the computer c) function as medical control in the absence of a licensed physician d) automatically dispatch aeromedical support when a call is received

c

Problems that occur in the prehospital phase of the emergency medical services (EMS) operation are MOST often related to: a) EMRs functioning above their skill level b) delayed response times to the scene by emergency medical technicians (EMTS) c) a lack of control and coordination resources and personnel d) failure of the dispatcher to obtain adequate information

b

Which of following MOST accurately describes an emergency medical responder (EMR)? a) an individual who responds to the scene in an ambulance b) the first medically trained person to arrive at the scene c) an individual who provides initial advanced life support (ALS) d) a fire fighter or police officer who assists the paramedics

b

Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct? A. Mass- casualty incidents typically produce low stress levels. B. Past experiences may make it difficult to deal with stress. C. Most emergency calls produce only a minor level of stress. D. Very Young Patients tend to cause the least amount of stress.

d

Ways in which the EMR can prevent and reduce unnecessary stress include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Learning to recognize the signs and symptoms of stress. B. Adjustments in lifestyle to include stress-reducing activities. C. Being aware of the resources and services that are available. D. Frequent exposure to stress-causing situations to train the mind.

a

Which of the following would MOST likely produce the greatest amount of stress for the EMR? A. Death B. Anger C. Exercise D. Depression

b

All of the following are part of the normal grieving process, EXCEPT: A. Anger B. Violence C. Depression D. Acceptance

d

A chronically ill patient who is experiencing denial: A. Commonly makes statements such as "Why me?" B. Is typically withdrawn and will not speak to you. C. Usually tries to make a deal to avoid the inevitable. D. Often cannot believe what is happening to him or her.

a

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to avoid allowing an angry patient or family member to interfere with your patient care duties? A. Realize that the anger is not because of you. B. Ignore the behavior and continue your duties. C. Be stern with the patient or family member. D. Cease all care until everyone calms down.

d

To see his grandson graduate from high school, a man with a terminal illness promises to keep all of his doctor's appointments and take all of his medications exactly as prescribed. This is an example of: A. Anger B. Denial C. Acceptance D. Bargaining

c

Which of the following statements regarding the acceptance stage of the grieving process is correct? A. The patient is satisfied with the situation during this phase. B. Acceptance is typically the first stage of the grieving process. C. The patient understands that the situation cannot be changed. D. It is often characterized by sadness, despair, and denial.

b

When you encounter a patient with a significant illness, it is important to remember that he or she: A. Is usually depressed and will not talk. B. May be experiencing any stage of grief. C. Will always project anger toward you. D. Has probably already accepted the situation.

c

Common signs or symptoms of stress include: A. Excessive eating. B. Heightened awareness. C. Insomnia or nightmares. D. An increase in sexual drive.

a

Difficulty sleeping may be a difficult sign of stress to recognize in emergency responders because: A. Shift work or rotating hours make normal sleep patterns hard to maintain. B. Stress usually causes emergency responders to request additional hours C. Increased adrenalin levels often cause the responder to be hyperactive. D. The emergency responder often responds to stress by sleeping excessively.

a

Your mental and physical health may suffer, resulting in a decreased ability to deal with stress, if you: A. Get less than 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep per night. B. Fail to eat adequate amounts of sugar on a daily basis. C. Maintain a routine of working a regular shift schedule. D. Eliminate working additional shifts for a second job.

b

An important step in managing your own stress is the ability to: A. Ignore its signs and symptoms. B. Recognize its signs and symptoms. C. Eliminate all stressors in your life. D. Project the stress toward others

b

Your partner, who holds a second job with a private ambulance service, is very irritable with you and the patient during a call. When you ask him to take the patient's blood pressure, he fumbles with the equipment and appears very distracted. You should be MOST suspicious that your partner: A. Is abusing alcohol or illegal drugs. B. Is experiencing sleep deprivation. C. Has personal issues with the patient. D. Has been oversleeping because of stress.

d

Which of the following represents the LEAST healthy and balanced diet? A. Lean meats, fish, fat-free milk, and yogurt. B. Whole-grain cereal, vegetables, and low-fat milk. C. Six ounces of pasta and 2.5 cups of a variety of vegetables. D. One cup of fruit, 3 ounces of salt, and 1 cup of fat-free milk.

c

The MOST common cause of death in public safety workers is: A. Job-related accidents. B. Depression and suicide. C. Heart and blood vessel disease. D. Cancer from exposure to poisons.

c

EMS providers, law enforcement officers, and fire fighters are especially at risk for: A. An overall decrease in blood pressure. B. Increased circulating blood sugar levels. C. Dehydration caused by excess fluid loss. D. Violent behavior and homicidal thoughts.

d

Caffeine is a drug that: A. Decreases your reaction time. B. Causes a drop in blood pressure. C. Results in a low level of activity. D. Causes a release of adrenaline.

b

What effects does caffeine have on the body? A. Over hydration and decreased stressed levels. B. Increased blood pressure and increased stress. C. Decreased alertness, sleepiness, and depression. D. Decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure.

c

While at the scene of a motor vehicle crash on a hot afternoon, you begin experiencing lightheadedness and feel like you are going to faint. A. Continue working but stop if your symptoms get worse. B. Get a cup of coffee and immediately sit down in the shade. C. Rehabilitate yourself by drinking water or a sports drink. D. Leave the scene at once and seek the care of a physician.

a

A combination of caffeine and alcohol would MOST likely cause: A. Dehydration B Depression C. Hyperactivity D. Low blood pressure

b

Depression and a reduced ability to deal with stress would MOST likely be caused by: A. Sugar B. Alcohol C. Caffeine D. Coffee or cola.

d

You can reduce stress MOST effectively during recreational activities by: A. Limiting your use of tobacco products. B. Discussing work issues with your family. C. Consuming moderate amounts of alcohol. D. Including friends who are not coworkers.

c

If you are experiencing stress away from your job, you should: A. Spend some time away from family and friends. B. Obtain a prescription for anti-anxiety medication. C. Seek assistance from a mental health professional. D. D. Find another job not related to emergency medicine.

a

Information regarding the stresses that you will encounter and the reactions you may experience would MOST likely be provided to you during: A. Pre incident stress education. B. On-scene peer support sessions. C. Postincident stress debriefing. D. Critical incident stress debriefing.

b

A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) is used to: A. Determine whether any errors in patient care occurred. B. Alleviate the stress reactions caused by high-stress incidents. C. Investigate potential wrongdoings by the EMS responder. D. Identify the exact stressors that resulted in the stress reaction.

c

CISDs are usually conducted: A. Immediately following a major incident. B. Within 12 to 24 hours following a major incident. C. Within 24 to 72 hours following a major incident. D. Only if more than two people are severely affected.

d

The disease-causing agents that are spread through contact with blood or other secretions are called: A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Antigens D. Pathogens

d

Which of the following infectious diseases would be the LEAST likely to be spread by the airborne droplet route? A. Influenza B. Tuberculosis (TB) C. Sever acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) D. Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

c

There is no scientific documentation that the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is transmitted via urine, nasal recreations, or sputum, unless: A. The secretions come into contact with intact skin. B. The patient has an abnormal blood cell count. C. The secretions contain visible signs of blood. D. The rescuer has been immunized against HIV.

d

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is NOT correct? A.HIV is transmitted via direct contact with infected blood. B. There is currently no vaccine to protect rescuers from HIV. C. Blood splashed into the eyes is a significant route of exposure. D. Most people with HIV show symptoms early in their disease.

a

Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B virus is correct? A.Hepatitis B is far more contagious than HIV. B. Indirect contact with blood spreads hepatitis B. C. There is no effective vaccine against hepatitis B. D. Hepatitis B is usually spread via the droplet route.

b

Patients who pose the highest risk of transmitting TB usually: A. Gain weight B. Have a cough. C. Are older adults. D. Have a fever.

c

You are asked to accompany a paramedic in the back of the ambulance to take care of a patient with suspected TB. The patient is coughing and is in severe respiratory distress. In addition to gloves, what protective measures should you take? A. Place a HEPA respirator on the patient and a gown on yourself. B. Put on safety goggles and apply an oxygen mask to the patient. C. Put on a HEPA respirator and apply an oxygen mask to the patient. D. Apply a full face shield to the patient and don a second pair of gloves.

a

The HINI strain of influenza (swine flu) has caused concern because: A. Few people have immunity to this strain of virus. B. There is presently no vaccination against HINI. C. It is most commonly spread via infected blood. D. It is fatal in the majority of people who are infected.

b

Most cases of MRSA occur in: A. Trauma patients. B. Healthcare settings. C. Infants and children. D. The elderly population.

a

The MOST effective way to prevent exposure to infectious diseases is to: A. Follow standard precautions on all calls. B. Place a mask on all patients you treat. C. Ensure that your immunizations are current. D. Wash your hands thoroughly after each call.

b

During a multiple-casualty incident, you and your partner are caring for patients until EMT and paramedic units arrive. There are three patients, all of whom have bleeding from various wounds. After taking care of the first patient, you should: A. Place another pair of gloves over the blood-soaked gloves you are wearing. B. Take off your gloves and apply another pair before caring for another patient. C. Immediately move to the next patient and provide bleeding control as needed. D. Wash off your gloves with a disinfectant solution before caring for another patient.

d

Which of the following is NOT part of the standard precautions recommended be the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? A. Wear a face shield if blood splatter is anticipated. B. Place needles directly in a puncture-proof container. C. Wash your hands immediately after patient contact. D. Use leather gloves as a barrier against blood and fluids.

c

In which of the following situations would the of a gown or apron, face shield, and gloves clearly be indicated? A. Minor trauma. B. Obtaining vital signs. C. Emergency childbirth. D. All emergency situations.

b

A patient is trapped in his car following a collision. After the paramedic starts an intravenous (IV) line on the patient, the paramedic hands you the needle. You should: A. Carefully recap the needle and dispose of it properly. B. Place the needle directly in a puncture-proof container. C. Break the needle off and place it in a sharps container. D. Lay the needle on the ground and document its location.

a

Which of the following immunizations and tests are recommended for EMS providers? A. Tetanus prophylaxis, hepatitis B vaccine, and TB skin testing. B. Hepatitis C vaccine, HIV prophylaxis, and annual TB skin testing. C. West Nile virus vaccine, tetanus prophylaxis, and hepatitis A vaccine. D. TB skin testing, hepatitis A vaccine, and prophylactic antibiotics.

b

As an EMR, your MOST important consideration is: A. Accessing the patient. B. Ensuring your own safety. C. Providing competent patient care. D. Assisting paramedics at the scene.

d

Which of the following is NOT a consideration when responding to an emergency scene? A. Fastening your safety belt. B. Proceeding quickly but safely. C. Considering the drivers around you. D. Taking the shortest route.

a

When parking your vehicle at an emergency scene, you should: A. Protect the emergency scene from traffic hazards. B. Avoid reflective vests because they will distract other drivers. C. First ensure the safety of your partner and the patient(s). D. Park your vehicle as close to the patients(s) as possible.

a

You are the first responder to arrive at an emergency scene. What should you do first? A. Survey the scene for potential safety hazards. B. Access the patient and initiate the appropriate care. C. Wait in your vehicle until law enforcement arrives. D. Determine exactly how many patients are involved.

B

In addition to ensuring your own safety, the most important guideline to follow when moving a patient is to: A. move the patient's body as a unit. B. do no further harm to the patient. C. move the patient as little as possible. D. move the patient only when necessary.

A

When moving a patient, who typically gives the command to begin the move? A. The rescuer at the patient's head B. The strongest rescuer at the scene C. The most senior responder at the scene D. The paramedic in charge of patient care

B

All of the following are general recommendations to follow when moving a patient, except: A. explaining to the patient what you are going to do and how. B. moving the patient before treating him or her if the scene is safe. C. delaying the move of a patient until additional EMS personnel arrive. D. moving the patient as few times as possible unless the scene is unsafe.

D

If you suspect that a patient has suffered a head or spine injury, you should: A. move the patient quickly so that his or her spine can be immobilized. B. allow the patient to move slowly as you stabilize his or her head. C. carefully move the patient in a sitting position to avoid further injury. D. keep the patient's head and spine immobilized to avoid movement.

D

Regardless of the technique you use for moving patients, you should: A. keep your arms away from your body. B. maintain a slight curvature of your back. C. lift and lower the patient by bending your back. D. lift and lower the patient by bending your legs.

D

You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a man who fell approximately 20′ (6 m) from a second-story balcony. The patient is found lying on his side. He is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. A paramedic unit is approximately 5 minutes away. You should: A. apply a cervical collar and carefully secure the patient to a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device. B. carefully place the patient on his back and stabilize his head and neck until the paramedic unit arrives at the scene. C. carefully immobilize the patient to a long backboard and monitor his condition until the paramedic unit arrives. D. keep the patient's head and neck stabilized, tell the patient not to move, and wait for the paramedic unit to arrive at the scene.

A

The recovery position is used for patients who are: A. unconscious and not injured. B. experiencing respiratory distress. C. severely obese and not breathing. D. semiconscious with a neck injury.

C

With regard to lifting and moving, good body mechanics includes: A. twisting your body slightly when lifting. B. keeping your feet no less than 3′ (1 m) apart. C. using your legs and not your back when lifting. D. lifting with the strong musculature of your back.

B

Before attempting to move any patient, you should: A. roll the patient onto his or her side to estimate his or her weight. B. assess the patient's weight and know your physical limitations. C. concentrate on what you are doing instead of the other rescuers. D. put on a protective back brace to facilitate curvature of your back.

B

You are the first medically trained person to arrive at the scene of an ill person. You find the patient, a 350-pound man, sitting in a small bathroom. The patient tells you that he is extremely weak and is unable to walk. You should: A. carefully lift the patient and move him to a more open area. B. wait for additional rescuers to arrive before trying to move him. C. apply a cervical collar and position the patient on his left side. D. use the one-person walking assist technique to move the patient.

B

In which of the following situations would an emergency move be most appropriate? A. The patient has a history of cardiopulmonary arrest. B. The area around the patient cannot be protected adequately. C. The patient is in a mobile home or other area that is confined. D. The patient is in a car and there are shards of glass around him.

A

You and your partner are the first unit to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle crash. The driver of the car is deceased. There are two passengers in the back seat, an unconscious man who is breathing poorly, and a conscious woman who is lying on top of him. How should you move the woman? A. Rapidly but carefully remove her from the car so that you can gain access to the unconscious man. B. Apply a cervical collar, immobilize her to a short backboard device, and quickly remove her from the car. C. Slide a long backboard underneath her, secure her to the board with straps, and rapidly remove her from the car. D. Manually stabilize her head and neck, leave her where she is, and wait for a paramedic unit to arrive at the scene.

B

If a patient is lying on the floor or ground in an unsafe environment, you should: A. push the patient to safety using the long axis of his or her body. B. drag the patient away from the scene instead of trying to lift or carry him or her. C. disregard the possibility of spinal injury and move the patient quickly. D. grab the patient by the pants and quickly drag him or her to a safe area.

D

Which of the following most accurately describes the correct technique for performing a clothes drag? A. Grasp the patient's pant legs, support the patient's legs under your arms, and drag the patient to safety. B. Use two rescuers to grab each side of the patient's pants, minimize movement of the head, and drag the patient to safety. C. Secure a strap under the patient's arms and around his or her chest, protect his or her spine, and drag to safety. D. Grasp the clothes just behind the collar, rest the patient's head on your arms, and drag the patient to safety.

A

The blanket drag would be most appropriate to use to move a patient if he or she is: A. wearing clothing that is easily torn. B. in cardiac arrest and requires CPR. C. wearing a sturdy shirt but no pants. D. underweight and semiconscious.

D

An elderly woman must be moved from an unsafe environment quickly. The patient is unconscious and is wearing a thin nightgown. What is the most rapid and effective way for you and your partner to move her? A. Place her in a chair and rapidly move her to a place of safety while protecting her head and neck. B. Quickly log roll her onto a backboard, secure her to the board with straps, and move her to safety. C. Grasp the patient by the collar of her nightgown and pull her in the direction of the long axis of her body. D. Place a blanket or rug on the ground, roll her onto it, and quickly remove her from the unsafe environment.

C

The arm-to-arm drag allows you to move a patient: A. regardless of the patient's weight. B. while immobilizing the head and spine at the same time to prevent further injury. C. by carrying the weight of his or her upper body as the lower trunk and legs drag on the floor. D. while simultaneously maintaining spinal immobilization with a minimum of two rescuers.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the fire fighter drag is correct? A. It requires minimal strain on the rescuer's back. B. It does not require you to lift or carry the patient. C. It is appropriate only if the patient is unconscious. D. It is most effective if the patient is severely obese

D

You are the first emergency medical responder (EMR) to arrive at the scene of a 49-year-old man in cardiac arrest. The patient clearly weighs more than you do and is in an area that makes it extremely difficult for you perform CPR. You should: A. begin CPR to the best of your ability and continue until additional rescuers arrive at the scene. B. slide a long backboard under the patient and move him to a larger area where you can begin CPR. C. not attempt to move the patient until sufficient help is available to move the patient safely to a larger area. D. tie the patient's wrists together, place his arms around your neck, and drag the patient to an area where you can begin CPR.

B

You are the first emergency medical responder (EMR) to arrive at the scene of a 49-year-old man in cardiac arrest. The patient clearly weighs more than you do and is in an area that makes it extremely difficult for you perform CPR. You should: A. begin CPR to the best of your ability and continue until additional rescuers arrive at the scene. B. slide a long backboard under the patient and move him to a larger area where you can begin CPR. C. not attempt to move the patient until sufficient help is available to move the patient safely to a larger area. D. tie the patient's wrists together, place his arms around your neck, and drag the patient to an area where you can begin CPR.

B

A 60-year-old man is found sitting in his car alongside the road. There is no apparent damage to his vehicle. Your assessment reveals that the man is in cardiac arrest. You should: A. begin CPR while the patient is still in his car and remove him from the car when additional help arrives. B. grasp the patient under his arms, cradle his head between your arms, and remove him from the vehicle. C. recline the seat completely back, get inside the car, and begin CPR until additional help arrives at the scene. D. grasp the patient by his arms and rapidly drag him from the vehicle while protecting his head and neck as much as possible.

D

If you and your partner must remove a patient from a vehicle immediately, you should first: A. request at least two more rescuers for assistance. B. place a long backboard under the patient's buttocks. C. move the patient forward to check the back for injuries. D. have your partner manually support the patient's head.

A

The two-person extremity carry is particularly advantageous when moving a patient who: A. is in a narrow space. B. has an injury to the spine. C. has an altered mental state. D. weighs more than 250 pounds (113 kg).

C

When performing the two-person seat carry technique, the rescuers should: A. be standing side by side when they lift the patient. B. maintain stabilization of the patient's head as they move. C. keep their backs as straight as possible and lift with their legs. D. not attempt to lift the patient if he or she weighs more than 120 pounds (54 kg).

B

Which of the following statements regarding the two-person chair carry technique is correct? A. A folding chair should be used whenever possible. B. The patient generally feels more secure with this carry than with the seat carry. C. It is of minimal use when moving a patient through a narrow hallway. D. The rescuer at the foot end of the chair should be facing away from the patient.

D

Because the chair carry technique may force the patient's head forward, the rescuer should: A. use one hand to support the patient's head. B. request three more rescuers prior to lifting. C. use a folding chair to maximize head support. D. watch the patient for problems with the airway.

C

When performing the pack-strap carry technique, optimal weight distribution occurs when the: A. rescuer bends forward to lift the patient. B. rescuer is in an upright standing position. C. patient's armpits are over the rescuer's shoulders. D. patient weighs less than 150 pounds (68 kg).

B

The direct ground lift should not be performed if the patient: A. is unconscious and not breathing. B. has experienced a traumatic injury. C. weighs more than 175 pounds (79 kg). D. has a back injury and is able to walk.

A

Which of the following statements regarding the direct ground lift is correct? A. It results in poor body mechanics and is generally discouraged. B. The rescuers should be on opposite sides of each other when lifting. C. It is optimal for patients with suspected neck or back injuries. D. It requires minimal lifting effort on the part of the rescuers.

B

The most appropriate technique for moving an adult patient from his or her bed to the ambulance stretcher is the: A. direct carry lift. B. draw sheet method. C. cradle-in-arms carry. D. pack-strap carry technique.

B

When determining whether to use one or two rescuers to provide walking assistance to an ambulatory patient, you should: A. ask the patient how much he or she weighs. B. assess the patient's condition and the incident scene. C. use one rescuer initially and then a second if needed. D. ask the patient to walk a short distance to assess for pain.

C

The one-person walking assist method can be used if the patient: A. weighs less than 150 pounds (68 kg). B. requires assistance over rough terrain. C. is able to bear weight on his or her feet. D. only has minor lower extremity injuries.

D

Which of the following statements regarding ambulance stretchers is correct? A. All ambulance stretchers have the same operational features. B. Ambulance stretchers should only be operated by two people. C. Ambulance stretchers will accommodate patients of any weight. D. It is best to use four people if the ambulance stretcher must be lifted or carried.

B

In which of the following situations would the use of a stair chair be ideal? A. A patient who is unconscious with poor breathing effort B. A patient with shortness of breath and no history of trauma C. A patient with trouble breathing following trauma to the chest D. A patient with neck and back pain following a motor vehicle crash

D

Long backboards are most appropriate to use for patients who: A. do not require neck or back protection. B. only need to be moved a short distance. C. must be moved from a dangerous scene. D. require stabilization of the head and neck.

A

When moving a patient on a long backboard, you should: A. secure him or her to the board with straps. B. always immobilize the head to the board. C. use no more than two rescuers to lift the board. D. use a board made of varnished plywood if possible.

D

Short backboards or vest-style devices are most appropriate to use for patients who: A. are injured and found in a lying position. B. require rapid movement from an unsafe scene. C. are in need of CPR and movement down stairs. D. have neck or back pain and are in a sitting position.

B

A device that separates into left and right halves and is helpful when moving a patient from a small place is called a: A. folding stretcher. B. scoop stretcher. C. flexible stretcher. D. semirigid stretcher.

A

When moving a deceased person, it is most appropriate to: A. place the body in a body bag and then place the body bag on a long backboard. B. cover the body with a white sheet and then place it in a fully encapsulated body bag. C. place the body in a body bag and then use at least two people to carry the body bag. D. cover the body with a yellow sheet and then move the body with a portable stretcher.

C

When moving a deceased person, your priority should be to: A. move the body in a manner that creates a respectful image for the family. B. move the body in a manner that does not expose it directly to the media. C. move the body in a manner that minimizes your risk of personal injury. D. avoid covering the body in case his or her death was caused by homicide.

B

Which of the following devices would not serve as an adequate replacement for a long backboard? A. Door B. Foam surfboard C. Sturdy folding table D. Ironing board

A

Any time a patient has suffered a traumatic injury, you should: A. suspect injury to the head, neck, or spine. B. move the patient with a folding stretcher. C. routinely apply a short backboard device. D. immobilize him or her with a scoop stretcher.

D

An appropriately sized cervical collar is designed to: A. completely immobilize the patient's head and neck. B. replace manual stabilization of a patient's head and neck. C. be applied after the patient has been placed onto a backboard. D. minimize head and neck movement and prevent further injury.

C

All of the following are important principles of patient movement when a spinal injury is suspected, except: A. ensuring that you move the patient as a unit. B. ensuring that one rescuer gives all commands to move. C. transporting the patient on the left side in case of vomiting. D. keeping the patient's head and neck in a neutral position.

B

The primary technique used to move a patient onto a long backboard is the: A. sheet drag. B. log roll technique. C. fire fighter's drag. D. direct carry method.

B

Who should give the commands to move a patient with a suspected spinal injury? A. The rescuer with the most experience B. The rescuer at the patient's head C. The rescuer at the patient's torso D. The rescuer who will bear the most weight

A

You and your partner are assisting paramedics in securing an injured patient to a long backboard. One paramedic is supporting the patient's head while the other paramedic and your partner are supporting the patient's torso and legs. Where should you be? A. Ready to slide the board under the patient as the team performs a log roll B. Standing behind the paramedic at the head to help him or her stay balanced C. Waiting to apply a cervical collar after the patient is secured to the backboard D. Behind the rescuers at the patient's torso and legs to prevent them from falling

B

When placing a patient onto a long backboard in a confined space, you should do so using the: A. log roll. B. straddle lift. C. direct carry. D. blanket drag.

A

In contrast to the straddle lift technique, the straddle slide technique involves: A. moving the patient rather than the backboard. B. moving the backboard rather than the patient. C. placing the patient onto a short backboard device. D. lifting the patient at least 12" (30 cm) off the ground.

D

When performing the straddle slide technique, team coordination problems would MOST likely occur if the patient is moved more than __________ at a time. A. 5" to 6" (12.7 to 15.2 cm) B. 6" to 8" (15.2 to 20.3 cm) C. 8" to 10" (20.3 to 25.4 cm) D. 10" to 12" (25.4 to 30.5 cm)

A

The most effective way to prevent accidental movement of a patient's head when strapping him or her to a long backboard is to: A. secure the head to the backboard after securing the wrist and hip area. B. routinely secure the patient's head to the backboard first. C. secure the torso before centering the patient on the board. D. pad any voids in between the patient and the long backboard.

A

When immobilizing the patient's head to the long backboard, you should: A. place rolled blankets on both sides of the patient's head. B. tightly secure the patient's head to the board with cravats. C. secure the head to the board before securing the torso and legs. D. stabilize both sides of the head prior to applying a cervical collar.

C

When can the rescuer who is manually stabilizing a patient's head safely let go of the head? A. After an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied B. As soon as the patient's torso has been secured to the board C. After the head has been secured to the board with blanket rolls D. As soon as the patient is adequately centered on the backboard

D

You are asked to accompany a paramedic in the back of the ambulance to assist in the care of a critically injured patient. The patient, who is semiconscious, is fully immobilized on a long backboard. What is the MOST important thing that you should be doing? A. Taking the patient's vital signs B. Performing a head-to-toe assessment C. Manually stabilizing the patient's head D. Monitoring the patient for airway problems

B

In which of the following situations would it be most appropriate to use an improvised device instead of a commercially prepared long backboard? A. A commercially prepared backboard is not immediately available to move a stable patient. B. An injured patient must be moved immediately to prevent further injury or death. C. An unstable patient with severe injuries requires immediate transportation to the hospital. D. An injured patient in a safe area has an unstable airway that requires immediate treatment.

C

Which of the following concepts is the first and most important when providing patient care? A. Render proper treatment B. Maintain your composure C. Above all else, do no harm D. Provide your care in good faith

B

An uninvolved citizen who encounters a motor vehicle crash: A. has a legal duty to act. B. is not required by law to stop. C. is required to provide immediate care. D. must wait until EMS personnel arrive.

D

An EMR has a legal duty to act: A. even when outside of his or her response jurisdiction. B. if he or she encounters an emergency scene while not on duty. C. only if he or she is not paid by a fire department or rescue squad. D. while employed by an agency that designates you as an EMR.

A

To comply with the standard of care, the EMR must: A. treat the patient to the best of his or her ability and provide care that a reasonable, prudent person with similar training would provide under similar circumstances. B. provide prompt and competent care that is consistent with what is deemed appropriate by the paramedic in charge and that is clearly defined in the EMS system protocols. C. provide the same prompt and competent care that an individual with a higher level of training would have provided under the same or similar circumstances. D. treat the patient in a manner that is consistent with what is expected of the general public and that meets or exceeds the EMR's established scope of practice.

C

You are a volunteer EMR and have placed your name on the schedule to respond for a 12-hour shift. With 10 minutes left in your shift, you are dispatched for a patient with a possible fractured leg. You should: A. wait until your relief arrives and let him or her respond. B. respond only if it is convenient because you are a volunteer. C. proceed to the scene and begin providing care to the patient. D. wait for paramedics to arrive to determine if you are needed.

D

While functioning at the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, you do not initiate CPR because the patient is elderly and you think that he is probably dead. Paramedics arrive and determine that the patient has only been in cardiac arrest for 6 minutes. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct? A. As an EMR, you did not have a legal duty to begin CPR. B. The patient would most likely not be able to be resuscitated. C. Your actions are consistent with the responsibilities of an EMR. D. You may be held liable for failure to follow the standard of care.

D

The scope of care under which the EMR functions is specified by the: A. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. B. State Department of Public Safety. C. National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians. D. EMS system medical director.

C

As part of your ethical responsibilities, you are expected to: A. transport every patient to the closest hospital. B. provide patient care as directed by a paramedic. C. conform to accepted professional standards of conduct. D. review the care provided by all members of the EMS system.

B

In general, you should never change or alter a patient care report, unless: A. a paramedic or licensed physician orders you to do so. B. you need to correct an error to ensure that the information is accurate. C. law enforcement personnel need the report for legal reasons. D. the patient's condition deteriorated after a paramedic assumed care.